# 6th Benelux Mathematical Olympiad Solutions Brugge, May 2-4 2014 ![](https://cdn.mathpix.com/cropped/2024_12_15_fb9be07ea97b63ba84aeg-1.jpg?height=405&width=497&top_left_y=104&top_left_x=1448) ## Problem 1 Find the smallest possible value of the expression $$ \left\lfloor\frac{a+b+c}{d}\right\rfloor+\left\lfloor\frac{b+c+d}{a}\right\rfloor+\left\lfloor\frac{c+d+a}{b}\right\rfloor+\left\lfloor\frac{d+a+b}{c}\right\rfloor, $$ in which $a, b, c$ and $d$ vary over the set of positive integers. (Here $\lfloor x\rfloor$ denotes the biggest integer which is smaller than or equal to $x$.) ## Solution The answer is 9 . Notice that $\lfloor x\rfloor>x-1$ for all $x \in \mathbb{R}$. Therefore the given expression is strictly greater than $$ \frac{a+b+c}{d}+\frac{b+c+d}{a}+\frac{c+d+a}{b}+\frac{d+a+b}{c}-4, $$ which can be rewritten as $$ \left(\frac{a}{b}+\frac{b}{a}\right)+\left(\frac{a}{c}+\frac{c}{a}\right)+\left(\frac{a}{d}+\frac{d}{a}\right)+\left(\frac{b}{c}+\frac{c}{b}\right)+\left(\frac{b}{d}+\frac{d}{b}\right)+\left(\frac{c}{d}+\frac{d}{c}\right)-4 . $$ Since $t+\frac{1}{t} \geq 2$ for $t>0$, we get that $6 \cdot 2-4=8$ is a strict lower bound for the given expression; since it takes integral values only, we actually get that 9 is a lower bound. It remains to check that 9 can be attained; this happens for $a=b=c=5$ and $d=4$. ## Problem 2 Let $k \geq 1$ be an integer. We consider $4 k$ chips, $2 k$ of which are red and $2 k$ of which are blue. A sequence of those $4 k$ chips can be transformed into another sequence by a so-called move, consisting of interchanging a number (possibly one) of consecutive red chips with an equal number of consecutive blue chips. For example, we can move from $r \underline{b b b r} \underline{r} \underline{b} b$ to $r \underline{r} \underline{b} b \underline{b b b} b$ where $r$ denotes a red chip and $b$ denotes a blue chip. Determine the smallest number $n$ (as a function of $k$ ) such that starting from any initial sequence of the $4 k$ chips, we need at most $n$ moves to reach the state in which the first $2 k$ chips are red. ## Solution The answer is $n=k$. We will first show that $n \geq k$. Let us count the number $C$ of times a red chip is directly to the right of a blue chip. In the final position this number equals 0 . In the position brbrbr $\cdots b r$ this number equals $2 k$. We claim that any move reduces this number by at most 2 . Denote by $R$ the group of red chips and by $B$ the group of blue chips that are interchanged. Any reduction in $C$ must involve a red chip getting rid of its blue left neighbour or a blue chip getting rid of its red right neighbour. This can only happen with the leftmost chip of $R$ (if its left neighbour is blue) and the rightmost chip of $B$ (if its right neighbour is red), but not with the rightmost chip of $R$ (and its right neighbour) or the leftmost chip of $B$ (and its left neighbour). Hence $C$ is reduced by at most 2 in any move. Therefore the number of moves necessary to change $b r b r b r \cdots b r$ into the final position is at least $\frac{2 k}{2}=k$. We will now show that $n \leq k$, i.e. that it is always possible to perform at most $k$ moves in order to reach the state in which the first $2 k$ chips are red. Consider the first $2 k$ chips. If at most $k$ of these chips are blue, we can perform one move for each chip, switching it with one of the red chips of the last $2 k$ chips. So then we are done in at most $k$ moves. Now suppose that of the first $2 k$ chips, at least $k+1$ are blue. Then at most $k-1$ chips are red. Hence it is possible to perform at most $k-1$ moves to reach the situation in which the last $2 k$ chips are red. We then perform one final move, switching the first $2 k$ chips and the last $2 k$ chips, ending in the situation in which the first $2 k$ chips are red. Thus, it is always possible to reach the situation in which the first $2 k$ chips are red in at most $k$ steps, hence $n \leq k$. We have now shown that $n \geq k$ and $n \leq k$, hence $n=k$ as claimed. ## Problem 3 Find all positive integers $n>1$ with the following property: for each two positive divisors $k, \ell2$ (since we already discussed the case $m-2=2$ ). We have $m=p+2$, hence $n=p(p+2)$. Applying the condition in the problem to the pair $(k, \ell)=(1, p)$, we get that $p-2$ or $2 p-1$ divides $n$. If $p-2$ divides $n$, we must have $p=3$ since $p$ is the smallest prime divisor of $n$. If $2 p-1$ divides $n$, we must have $p+2=2 p-1$, since $p+2 \leq 2 p-1