![](https://cdn.mathpix.com/cropped/2024_06_05_512cd75ceaa073ae5b68g-01.jpg?height=340&width=1219&top_left_y=281&top_left_x=244) # Problems and Solutions Problem 1. Let $A B C$ be an acute-angled triangle. Let $D$ and $E$ be the midpoints of sides $\overline{A B}$ and $\overline{A C}$ respectively. Let $F$ be the point such that $D$ is the midpoint of $\overline{E F}$. Let $\Gamma$ be the circumcircle of triangle $F D B$. Let $G$ be a point on the segment $\overline{C D}$ such that the midpoint of $\overline{B G}$ lies on $\Gamma$. Let $H$ be the second intersection of $\Gamma$ and $F C$. Show that the quadrilateral $B H G C$ is cyclic. (Art Waeterschoot, Belgium) Sketch for the First Solution. ![](https://cdn.mathpix.com/cropped/2024_06_05_512cd75ceaa073ae5b68g-01.jpg?height=544&width=1466&top_left_y=1184&top_left_x=292) First Solution. Since $D$ and $E$ are midpoints, the diagonals $\overline{A B}$ and $\overline{E F}$ of the quadrilateral $A F B E$ bisect each other, so $A F B E$ is a parallelogram. Hence $B F \| A E$. 2 points. Lemma. If $I$ is the second intersection of $\Gamma$ and $\overline{B G}$, then $F I \| C D$. (We will present two different proofs.) First proof. Let $J$ be the point such that $B C A J$ is a $\mid$ Second proof. Let $M$ be the midpoint of $\overline{B C}$. As parallelogram. Since $B F \| A E$, we have that $B, F, J$ are colinear. $$ |M C|=\frac{|B C|}{2}=|D E|=|D F| $$ Since $D$ is the midpoint of $\overline{A B}, C, D, J$ are collinear. and $F D \| M C$, then $M C D F$ is a parallelog., so $M F \| C D$. 2 points. As $F$ and $I$ are midpoints of $\overline{B J}$ and $\overline{B G}$, then $F I \| C D$. As $M$ and $I$ are midpoints of $\overline{B C}$ and $\overline{B G}$, then $M I \| C D$. 2 points. 2 points. Hence $M, I$ and $F$ are collinear and $F I \| C D$. 1 point. Now as we know that $F I \| C D$, we have $\angle B I F=\angle B G D$. 1 point. As $B I H F$ is a cyclic quadrilateral, we have $\angle B I F=\angle B H F$. 1 point. Hence $$ \angle C H B=180^{\circ}-\angle B H F=180^{\circ}-\angle B G D=\angle C G B $$ so $B H G C$ is cyclic as desired. ## Sketch for the Second Solution. ![](https://cdn.mathpix.com/cropped/2024_06_05_512cd75ceaa073ae5b68g-02.jpg?height=629&width=834&top_left_y=328&top_left_x=614) Second Solution. Since $D$ and $E$ are midpoints, the diagonals $\overline{A B}$ and $\overline{E F}$ of the quadrilateral $A F B E$ bisect each other, so $A F B E$ is a parallelogram. Hence $B F \| A E$. 2 points. Let $J$ be the point such that $B C A J$ is a parallelogram. Since $B F \| A E$, we have that $B, F, J$ are collinear. 2 points. Since $D$ is the midpoint of $\overline{A B}, C, D, J$ are collinear. 1 point. Now let $\Gamma_{1}$ be the circumcircle of triangle $J A B$. As $F$ and $D$ are midpoints of $\overline{B J}$ and $\overline{B A}$, and the midpoint of $\overline{B G}$ lies on $\Gamma$, we can redefine $G$ as the second intersection of $\Gamma_{1}$ and $C J$. 2 points. As $A J B G$ is a cyclic quadrilateral, we have $\angle B G J=\angle B A J$. 1 point. As $F D$ is parallel to $J A$, we have $\angle B A J=\angle B D F$. 0 points. As $B H D F$ is a cyclic quadrilateral, we have $\angle B D F=\angle B H F$. 1 point. Hence $$ \angle C H B=180^{\circ}-\angle B H F=180^{\circ}-\angle B G D=\angle C G B $$ so $B H G C$ is cyclic as desired. 1 point. ## Notes on marking: - If a student has a partial solution with analytic methods, only points for proving facts that can be expressed in geometric ways and lead to a complete solution can be awarded. Problem 2. A positive integer $k \geqslant 3$ is called fibby if there exists a positive integer $n$ and positive integers $d_{1}|B C|$. Let $O$ be a point on the line $C D$ such that $|O B|=|O D|$. Let $\omega$ be a circle with center $O$ and radius $|O C|$. If $T$ is the second intersection of $\omega$ and $C D$, prove that $A T, B O$ and $\omega$ are concurrent. First Solution. Let $R$ denote the intersection od $\omega$ and line $B O$ such that $O$ is located between $B$ and $R$. We will prove that $A, T$ and $R$ are collinear. 0 points. Let $X$ be the intersection of the diagonals of $A B C D$. ![](https://cdn.mathpix.com/cropped/2024_06_05_512cd75ceaa073ae5b68g-10.jpg?height=809&width=997&top_left_y=1349&top_left_x=535) We know that $X$ is the midpoint of $\overline{A C}$ and $O$ is the midpoint of $\overline{T C}$ so we conclude that $X O \| A T$. 2 points. $X$ is also the midpoint of $\overline{B D}$ so, since triangle $O B D$ is isosceles, $O X \perp B D$. 2 points. This means that $A T \perp B D$. 1 point. Now because of $|D O|=|B O|$ we have $$ \angle D O R=2 \angle O D B $$ and because $|O T|=|O R|$ we have $$ \angle O T R=90^{\circ}-\angle O D B $$ Finally we have $$ \angle A T D=90^{\circ}-\angle B D C=\angle O T R $$ and so $A, T$ and $R$ are collinear as desired. 3 points. Second Solution. Define $R$ as the intersection of the ray $B O$ with $\omega$ such that $O$ is between $B$ and $R$. We will prove that $A, T$ and $R$ are collinear. 0 points. Since $|B O|=|D O|$ and $|O R|=|O C|$, we have: $$ |B R|=|B O|+|O R|=|D O|+|O C|=|C D|=|B A| \text {. } $$ Therefore, triangle $B R A$ is isosceles. 5 points. Now, due to the triangles $T O R$ and $B R A$ being isosceles, we have: $$ |\angle B R A|=\frac{180^{\circ}-|\angle R B A|}{2} $$ and $$ \frac{180^{\circ}-|\angle R O T|}{2}=|\angle O R T|=|\angle B R T| $$ 2 points. Finally, since $|\angle R B A|=|\angle T O R|$, we have $$ |\angle B R A|=|\angle B R T| $$ , so $R, T$ and $A$ are collinear, which proves the claim. 3 points. Third Solution. Let $R^{\prime}$ be the intersection of line AT and $\omega$ different from $T$. We will prove that points $B, O$ and $R^{\prime}$ are collinear. 0 points. Let $X$ be the intersection of the diagonals of the parallelogram $A B C D$. ![](https://cdn.mathpix.com/cropped/2024_06_05_512cd75ceaa073ae5b68g-11.jpg?height=814&width=1006&top_left_y=1832&top_left_x=525) Now as in the first solution we conclude that $X O \| A T$ and $O X \perp B D$, which leads to $A T$ being perpendicular to $B D$. Let $S$ be the intersection of $\omega$ and ray $O B$. Since triangles $O D B$ and $O T S$ are isosceles with $\angle D O B=\angle T O S$, these triangles are similar, which means that $T S \| B D$. 2 points. From this it follows that $S T \perp A T$, i.e. $\angle S T R^{\prime}=90^{\circ}$. This means that $\overline{S R^{\prime}}$ is the diameter of $\omega$, and as we know that $B, S$ and $O$ are collinear, we conclude that $B, O$ and $R^{\prime}$ are collinear. 3 points. Fourth Solution. Let $R^{\prime \prime}$ be the intersection of lines $A T$ and $B O$. We will show that $R^{\prime \prime}$ lies on the circle $\omega$. 0 points. Let $X$ be the intersection of the diagonals of the parallelogram $A B C D$. ![](https://cdn.mathpix.com/cropped/2024_06_05_512cd75ceaa073ae5b68g-12.jpg?height=819&width=1010&top_left_y=847&top_left_x=523) As in the first solution we conclude that $X O \| A T, O X \perp B D$ and $A T \perp B D$. 5 points. Denote $\angle T R^{\prime \prime} O=\alpha$. Since $A T \perp B D$, we have $$ \angle O B D=90^{\circ}-\alpha $$ Now, due to the triangle $O D B$ being isosceles, we have $$ \angle O D B=90^{\circ}-\alpha $$ Using again the fact that $A T \perp B D$, it follows that $$ \angle R^{\prime \prime} T O=\angle A T D=\alpha $$ We can now conclude that $|O T|=\left|O R^{\prime \prime}\right|$, which proves the claim. 3 points. ## Notes on marking: - Points from different solutions are not additive. Student's score should be the maximum of points scored over all solutions. - If a student has a partial solution with analytic methods, only points for proving facts that can be expressed in geometric ways and lead to a complete solution can be awarded. Problem 2. Let $n$ and $k$ be positive integers. An $n$-tuple $\left(a_{1}, a_{2}, \ldots, a_{n}\right)$ is called a permutation if every number from the set $\{1,2, \ldots, n\}$ occurs in it exactly once. For a permutation $\left(p_{1}, p_{2}, \ldots, p_{n}\right)$, we define its $k$-mutation to be the $n$-tuple $$ \left(p_{1}+p_{1+k}, p_{2}+p_{2+k}, \ldots, p_{n}+p_{n+k}\right) $$ where indices are taken modulo $n$. Find all pairs $(n, k)$ such that every two distinct permutations have distinct $k$-mutations. Remark: For example, when $(n, k)=(4,2)$, the 2-mutation of $(1,2,4,3)$ is $(1+4,2+3,4+1,3+2)=(5,5,5,5)$. (Borna Šimić) First Solution. Let $f$ denote the function that, when given a permutation, returns its $k$-mutation. Let $M(a, b)$ denote the greatest common divisor of $a$ and $b$. The answer is all $(n, k)$ such that $n / M(n, k)$ is odd. Suppose that $n / M(n, k)$ is odd. Consider permutations $p, q$ such that $f(p)=f(q)$. Suppose for the sake of contradiction that there exists some $t \leqslant n$ such that $p_{t}>q_{t}$. We have: $$ p_{t}+p_{t+k}=q_{t}+q_{t+k} $$ so we must have $p_{t+k}q_{t+2 k}$. Inductively, we obtain $p_{t+d k}1$. Proof. Substituting $x=1$ gives $$ f(y+1)+f(f(y)+1)=f(f(1)) $$ Since the function only attains positive values, we have $f(y+1)P$ and pick a positive integer $n$ such that $\left(x_{1}+n p\right) f\left(x_{1}+y_{1}\right) \geqslant f(f(1))$ and $\left(x_{1}+n p\right) f\left(x_{1}\right)>1$. Substituting $x=x_{1}+n p, y=y_{1}$ gives $$ \begin{aligned} \left(x_{1}+n p\right) f\left(\left(x_{1}+n p\right)+y_{1}\right)+f\left(\left(x_{1}+n p\right) f\left(y_{1}\right)+1\right) & =f\left(\left(x_{1}+n p\right) f\left(x_{1}+n p\right)\right) \\ \left(x_{1}+n p\right) f\left(x_{1}+y_{1}\right)+f\left(\left(x_{1}+n p\right) f\left(y_{1}\right)+1\right) & =f\left(\left(x_{1}+n p\right) f\left(x_{1}\right)\right) \end{aligned} $$ after using periodicity to simplify the equation. Due to our choice of $n$ and the function only attaining positive values, we have $$ f\left(\left(x_{1}+n p\right) f\left(x_{1}\right)\right)>\left(x_{1}+n p\right) f\left(x_{1}+y_{1}\right)>f(f(1)) $$ However, since we have $\left(x_{1}+n p\right) f\left(x_{1}\right)>1$, Claim 1 implies $f\left(\left(x_{1}+n p\right) f\left(x_{1}\right)\right)1$. Substituting $y=f(y)$ and using Claim 3, we transform the original equation: $$ x f(x+f(y))+f(x y+1)=f(x f(x)) $$ Substituting $x=c, y=\frac{c f(c)-1}{c}$ into the above equation gives $c f(c+f((c f(c)-1) / c))=0$ after cancellation of the terms, a clear contradiction. The second part of the claim follows immediately. 1 point. Claim 5. For all $x \in \mathbb{R}^{+}$, we have $f(x f(x)) \leqslant 1$. Proof. We notice $$ f(x f(x))=x f(x+y)+f(x f(y)+1)1$ : therefore, it should hold that $$ f(c f(c))<\frac{c}{c+y}+1 $$ However, the left hand side of the above inequality is independent of $y$. Thus, for $y$ sufficiently large, the opposite direction of the inequality will hold since $c /(c+y)$ can get arbitrarily small, which leads to a contradiction. 1 point. Claim 6. For all $x \in \mathbb{R}^{+}, f(x f(x)) \geqslant 1$. Proof. Assume the contrary. Therefore, there exists some $a$ such that $f(a f(a))<1$, let $f(a f(a))=1-e$. By Claim 4, there exists a $Y \in \mathbb{R}^{+}$such that $f(y+1)Y$. Let $d>Y$. Observing (1) after substituting $y=d$, we notice $$ f(f(d)+1)=1-f(d+1)>1-e $$ Substituting $x=a, y=f\left(\frac{f(d)}{a}\right)$ into the original equation gives $$ 1-e=f(a f(a))=a f\left(a+f\left(\frac{f(d)}{a}\right)\right)+f(f(d)+1)>1-e $$ a contradiction. ## 4 points. Finally, observe Claims 5 and 6 together yield $f(x f(x))=1$ for all $x \in \mathbb{R}^{+}$. By injectivity, $x f(x)$ is constant, hence $f(x)=\frac{c}{x}$ for some constant $c \in \mathbb{R}^{+}$. By checking, we see $c=1$ yields the only valid solution, $f(x)=\frac{1}{x}$. 1 point. Second Solution. We present an alternative way of proving $f(x f(x))$ is constant after obtaining the first four claims of the first solution. Assume there exist $a$ and $b$ such that $f(a f(a))-f(b f(b)) \neq 0$. Without loss of generality, we can assume $f(a f(a))-$ $f(b f(b))>0$. We now substitute $(x, y)$ with $\left(a, f\left(\frac{x}{a}\right)\right)$ and $\left(b, f\left(\frac{x}{b}\right)\right)$ and subtract the resulting equations to obtain $$ \begin{aligned} f(a f(a))-f(b f(b)) & =a f\left(a+f\left(\frac{x}{a}\right)\right)-b f\left(b+f\left(\frac{x}{b}\right)\right)+f\left(a f\left(f\left(\frac{x}{a}\right)\right)+1\right)-f\left(b f\left(f\left(\frac{x}{b}\right)\right)+1\right) \\ & =a f\left(a+f\left(\frac{x}{a}\right)\right)-b f\left(b+f\left(\frac{x}{b}\right)\right)+f\left(a \cdot \frac{x}{a}+1\right)-f\left(b \cdot \frac{x}{b}+1\right) \\ & =a f\left(a+f\left(\frac{x}{a}\right)\right)-b f\left(b+f\left(\frac{x}{b}\right)\right) \end{aligned} $$ 1 point. This shows that, as $x$ varies, the expression $a f\left(a+f\left(\frac{x}{a}\right)\right)-b f\left(b+f\left(\frac{x}{b}\right)\right)$ is constant. As $f$ is an involution and thus surjective, we can choose a number $x_{1} \in \mathbb{R}^{+}$such that $a+f\left(\frac{x_{1}}{a}\right)>\frac{a}{f(a f(a))-f(b f(b))}$. Substituting $x$ with $x_{1}$ in the above equation and using Claim 4, we obtain $$ \begin{aligned} f(a f(a))-f(b f(b)) & =a f\left(a+f\left(\frac{x_{1}}{a}\right)\right)-b f\left(b+f\left(\frac{x_{1}}{b}\right)\right) \\ &