0$, let's define the function $$ g(t)=\frac{f(y)-f(y-t)}{t}-\frac{f(y+t)-f(y)}{t} . $$ We contend that $g(\varepsilon) \leq \frac{3}{5} g(3 \varepsilon)$ for any $\varepsilon>0$. Indeed by the problem condition, $$ \begin{aligned} & f(y) \leq f(y-\varepsilon)+\frac{f(y+\varepsilon)-f(y-3 \varepsilon)}{4} \\ & f(y) \leq f(y+\varepsilon)-\frac{f(y+3 \varepsilon)-f(y-\varepsilon)}{4} . \end{aligned} $$  Summing gives the desired conclusion. Now suppose that $f$ has two supergradients $\alpha<\alpha^{\prime}$ at point $y$. For small enough $\varepsilon$, we should have we have $f(y-\varepsilon) \leq f(y)-\alpha^{\prime} \varepsilon$ and $f(y+\varepsilon) \leq f(y)+\alpha \varepsilon$, hence $$ g(\varepsilon)=\frac{f(y)-f(y-\varepsilon)}{\varepsilon}-\frac{f(y+\varepsilon)-f(y)}{\varepsilon} \geq \alpha^{\prime}-\alpha . $$ This is impossible since $g(\varepsilon)$ may be arbitrarily small. Claim - The function $f$ is quadratic on the rational numbers. Proof. Consider any four-term arithmetic progression $x, x+d, x+2 d, x+3 d$. Because $(f(x+2 d)-f(x+d)) / d$ and $(f(x+3 d)-f(x)) / 3 d$ are both supergradients of $f$ at the point $x+3 d / 2$, they must be equal, hence $$ f(x+3 d)-3 f(x+2 d)+3 f(x+d)-f(x)=0 . $$ If we fix $d=1 / n$, it follows inductively that $f$ agrees with a quadratic function $\widetilde{f}_{n}$ on the set $\frac{1}{n} \mathbb{Z}$. On the other hand, for any $m \neq n$, we apparently have $\widetilde{f}_{n}=\widetilde{f}_{m n}=\widetilde{f}_{m}$, so the quadratic functions on each "layer" are all equal. Since $f$ is continuous, it follows $f$ is quadratic, as needed. Remark (Alternate finish using differentiability due to Michael Ren). In the proof of the main claim (about uniqueness of supergradients), we can actually notice the two terms $\frac{f(y)-f(y-t)}{t}$ and $\frac{f(y+t)-f(y)}{t}$ in the definition of $g(t)$ are both monotonic (by concavity). Since we supplied a proof that $\lim _{t \rightarrow 0} g(t)=0$, we find $f$ is differentiable. Now, if the derivative at some point exists, it must coincide with all the supergradients; (informally, this is why "tangent line trick" always has the slope as the derivative, and formally, we use the mean value theorem). In other words, we must have $$ f(x+y)-f(x-y)=2 f^{\prime}(x) \cdot y $$ holds for all real numbers $x$ and $y$. By choosing $y=1$ we obtain that $f^{\prime}(x)=f(x+1)-f(x-1)$ which means $f^{\prime}$ is also continuous. Finally differentiating both sides with respect to $y$ gives $$ f^{\prime}(x+y)-f^{\prime}(x-y)=2 f^{\prime}(x) $$ which means $f^{\prime}$ obeys Jensen's functional equation. Since $f^{\prime}$ is continuous, this means $f^{\prime}$ is linear. Thus $f$ is quadratic, as needed.