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983f65c2-e0ac-4b6c-be94-51f4d0afd0b7 | Organism that does NOT need vector for transmission:
a. Coxiella burnetii
b. Rickettsia rickettsii
c. Borrelia recurrentis
d. Rickettsia prowazekii | Rickettsia prowazekii | Rickettsia rickettsii | Coxiella burnetii | Borrelia recurrentis | 2 | single | Coxiella burnetii causes Q fever. Q fever transmission differs from other rickettsial infection in that there is no ahropod involved in its transmission to man. Transmission results from inhalation, ingestion, abrasion or directly in conjunctiva. Ref: Park 21st edition, page 276. | Social & Preventive Medicine | null | a. Coxiella burnetii | a. Coxiella burnetii
b. Rickettsia rickettsii
c. Borrelia recurrentis
d. Rickettsia prowazekii | a. | [
"b.",
"c.",
"d."
] | [
"b. Rickettsia rickettsii",
"c. Borrelia recurrentis",
"d. Rickettsia prowazekii"
] | b. Rickettsia rickettsii | Choose the correct answer from the options below. | [
{
"content": "Organism that does NOT need vector for transmission:\n\na. Coxiella burnetii\nb. Rickettsia rickettsii\nc. Borrelia recurrentis\nd. Rickettsia prowazekii",
"role": "user"
},
{
"content": "a. Coxiella burnetii",
"role": "assistant"
}
] |
7ca2027e-160f-4c6b-b62d-49f0402f4115 | Immune reconstitution inflammatory syndrome typically occurs following anti retroviral therapy after a duration of:
I. 6-12 months
II. 2-6 weeks
III. 1-2 weeks
IV. 1-2 years | 1-2 weeks | 2-6 weeks | 6-12 months | 1-2 years | 1 | multi | Typically immune reconstitution inflammatory syndrome occurs within 2-12weeksof initiation of A, though it may present later between 6 weeks to 6 months. Ref: | Social & Preventive Medicine | null | II. 2-6 weeks | I. 6-12 months
II. 2-6 weeks
III. 1-2 weeks
IV. 1-2 years | II. | [
"I.",
"III.",
"IV."
] | [
"I. 6-12 months",
"III. 1-2 weeks",
"IV. 1-2 years"
] | I. 6-12 months | Choose the correct answer from the options below. | [
{
"content": "Immune reconstitution inflammatory syndrome typically occurs following anti retroviral therapy after a duration of:\n\nI. 6-12 months\nII. 2-6 weeks\nIII. 1-2 weeks\nIV. 1-2 years",
"role": "user"
},
{
"content": "II. 2-6 weeks",
"role": "assistant"
}
] |
f7a51603-5d03-4538-a682-d1a9992ea83f | . Gall stones -
I. Are usually more than 50 mm in diameter
II. About 80-90% of gall stones are radio-opaque
III. There is an increased incidence of stones in diabetics
IV. Are about twice as common in men as in women | Are about twice as common in men as in women | There is an increased incidence of stones in diabetics | About 80-90% of gall stones are radio-opaque | Are usually more than 50 mm in diameter | 1 | multi | null | Surgery | null | III. There is an increased incidence of stones in diabetics | I. Are usually more than 50 mm in diameter
II. About 80-90% of gall stones are radio-opaque
III. There is an increased incidence of stones in diabetics
IV. Are about twice as common in men as in women | III. | [
"I.",
"II.",
"IV."
] | [
"I. Are usually more than 50 mm in diameter",
"II. About 80-90% of gall stones are radio-opaque",
"IV. Are about twice as common in men as in women"
] | II. About 80-90% of gall stones are radio-opaque | Choose the correct answer from the options below. | [
{
"content": ". Gall stones -\n\nI. Are usually more than 50 mm in diameter\nII. About 80-90% of gall stones are radio-opaque\nIII. There is an increased incidence of stones in diabetics\nIV. Are about twice as common in men as in women",
"role": "user"
},
{
"content": "III. There is an increased in... |
bf442290-30a0-4fc2-be12-4fdaf82c1052 | Maximum infection of CMV is seen after what duration post transplantation ?
A. 1-4 months
B. Immediate
C. < 1 month
D. > 6 months | Immediate | < 1 month | 1-4 months | > 6 months | 2 | single | .Therapeutic invasive procedures may be in the form of IV cannula, bladder catheter, tracheostomy and other minor surgical procedures which permit the skin organisms like staphylococcus epidermidis to penetrate the skin and invade the deeper tissues. Organisms Bacteria: Gram-negative: E. coli, Pseudomonas, Klebsiella, ... | Surgery | Urology | A. 1-4 months | A. 1-4 months
B. Immediate
C. < 1 month
D. > 6 months | A. | [
"B.",
"C.",
"D."
] | [
"B. Immediate",
"C. < 1 month",
"D. > 6 months"
] | D. > 6 months | Choose the correct answer from the options below. | [
{
"content": "Maximum infection of CMV is seen after what duration post transplantation ?\n\nA. 1-4 months\nB. Immediate\nC. < 1 month\nD. > 6 months",
"role": "user"
},
{
"content": "A. 1-4 months",
"role": "assistant"
}
] |
05e0ae28-e7f8-45c9-90be-31dfd6565fb9 | All are typical electron microscopic features of Alpo syndrome, EXCEPT:
a. Multi Lamellation of the lamina densa
b. Irregular thickening of GBM
c. Basket weave pattern of lamina densa
d. Thickening of the renal tubules | Irregular thickening of GBM | Multi Lamellation of the lamina densa | Basket weave pattern of lamina densa | Thickening of the renal tubules | 3 | multi | Typical electron microscopic changes in Alpo syndrome: 1. Irregular thickening of the GBM of up to 4 or 5 times the normal thickness, 2. Multi Lamellation of the lamina densa forming a "basket weave" pattern by inclusion of electron lucent areas, often containing round, dense granules, measuring 20-60 nm in diameter. T... | Medicine | null | d. Thickening of the renal tubules | a. Multi Lamellation of the lamina densa
b. Irregular thickening of GBM
c. Basket weave pattern of lamina densa
d. Thickening of the renal tubules | d. | [
"a.",
"b.",
"c."
] | [
"a. Multi Lamellation of the lamina densa",
"b. Irregular thickening of GBM",
"c. Basket weave pattern of lamina densa"
] | b. Irregular thickening of GBM | Choose the correct answer from the options below. | [
{
"content": "All are typical electron microscopic features of Alpo syndrome, EXCEPT:\n\na. Multi Lamellation of the lamina densa\nb. Irregular thickening of GBM\nc. Basket weave pattern of lamina densa\nd. Thickening of the renal tubules",
"role": "user"
},
{
"content": "d. Thickening of the renal ... |
cf0feb9a-978f-4872-bd72-0aba80d97e8f | An asymptomatic 3-yrs-old is brought to you because of right cheek swelling. The mother states that the patient had been in his normal state of health until 1 hour ago, when he developed right cheek swelling. The patient is afebrile. Examination is unremarkable except for the right cheek, which is erythematous but not ... | Erysipelas | Cellulitis | Trauma | Panniculitis | 3 | multi | Panniculitis is secondary to cold injury to fat and is characterized by the development of indurated lesions that resemble buccal cellutitis. Young children who hold popsicles in their mouths may be prone to panniculitis. Erysipelas is an acute, well-demarcated infection of the skin with lymphangitis. The patient with ... | Surgery | null | (1) Panniculitis | (1) Panniculitis
(2) Trauma
(3) Cellulitis
(4) Erysipelas | (1) | [
"(2)",
"(3)",
"(4)"
] | [
"(2) Trauma",
"(3) Cellulitis",
"(4) Erysipelas"
] | (4) Erysipelas | Choose the correct answer from the options below. | [
{
"content": "An asymptomatic 3-yrs-old is brought to you because of right cheek swelling. The mother states that the patient had been in his normal state of health until 1 hour ago, when he developed right cheek swelling. The patient is afebrile. Examination is unremarkable except for the right cheek, which is... |
05ab1d47-abcd-4ede-a157-5c0f0535a112 | Prevalence of all clinical cases of polio can be estimated by multiplying the no. of residual paralytic cases by -
1) 3
2) 1.33
3) 1.25
4) 1.99 | 1.33 | 1.25 | 3 | 1.99 | 0 | multi | Ans. is 'a' i.e., 1.33 o The most accurate technique to measure the prevalence of polio in a community is a 'house to house' survey of 'lameness and muscle wasting' due to polio (in children between 5-10 years). The total prevalence of residual paralysis due to poliomyelitis could then be estimated by multiplying preva... | Social & Preventive Medicine | null | 2) 1.33 | 1) 3
2) 1.33
3) 1.25
4) 1.99 | 2) | [
"1)",
"3)",
"4)"
] | [
"1) 3",
"3) 1.25",
"4) 1.99"
] | 3) 1.25 | Choose the correct answer from the options below. | [
{
"content": "Prevalence of all clinical cases of polio can be estimated by multiplying the no. of residual paralytic cases by -\n\n1) 3\n2) 1.33\n3) 1.25\n4) 1.99",
"role": "user"
},
{
"content": "2) 1.33",
"role": "assistant"
}
] |
29a8fcef-cac1-4c7a-82e0-9dcdc89c64cd | Alpha 1 antitrypsin deficiency is associated with-
[A] Irregular-emphysema
[B] Paraseptal-emphysema
[C] Panacinar-emphysema
[D] Centriacinar-emphysema | Panacinar-emphysema | Centriacinar-emphysema | Paraseptal-emphysema | Irregular-emphysema | 0 | single | Ans. is 'a' i.e., Panacinar-emphysema Pathogenesis of Emphysemao The most accepted theory in the pathogenesis of emphysema is protease - antiprotease mechanism which is responsible in the pathogenesis of two common forms of emphysema, i.e. centriacinar and panacinar.o The alveolar wall destruction results from an imbal... | Pathology | Obstructive Lung Diseases | [C] Panacinar-emphysema | [A] Irregular-emphysema
[B] Paraseptal-emphysema
[C] Panacinar-emphysema
[D] Centriacinar-emphysema | [C] | [
"[A]",
"[B]",
"[D]"
] | [
"[A] Irregular-emphysema",
"[B] Paraseptal-emphysema",
"[D] Centriacinar-emphysema"
] | [B] Paraseptal-emphysema | Choose the correct answer from the options below. | [
{
"content": "Alpha 1 antitrypsin deficiency is associated with-\n\n[A] Irregular-emphysema\n[B] Paraseptal-emphysema\n[C] Panacinar-emphysema\n[D] Centriacinar-emphysema",
"role": "user"
},
{
"content": "[C] Panacinar-emphysema",
"role": "assistant"
}
] |
403778ba-ada7-4e4e-bab9-eccb4d0357ad | Uric acid is formed by
A) Catabolism of pyrimidines
B) Catabolism of ketones
C) Catabolism of proteins
D) Catabolism of purines | Catabolism of proteins | Catabolism of ketones | Catabolism of purines | Catabolism of pyrimidines | 2 | single | Uric acid the end product of purine catabolismis a strong reducing agent. Its role as an antioxidant is paicularly significant in the upper respiratory tract REF : DM VASUDEVAN TEXTBOOK ;8th EDITION ;Page no:547 and 548 | Biochemistry | Metabolism of nucleic acids | D) Catabolism of purines | A) Catabolism of pyrimidines
B) Catabolism of ketones
C) Catabolism of proteins
D) Catabolism of purines | D) | [
"A)",
"B)",
"C)"
] | [
"A) Catabolism of pyrimidines",
"B) Catabolism of ketones",
"C) Catabolism of proteins"
] | C) Catabolism of proteins | Choose the correct answer from the options below. | [
{
"content": "Uric acid is formed by\n\nA) Catabolism of pyrimidines\nB) Catabolism of ketones\nC) Catabolism of proteins\nD) Catabolism of purines",
"role": "user"
},
{
"content": "D) Catabolism of purines",
"role": "assistant"
}
] |
251ddabd-685a-4090-a471-4977be2c25c1 | Which of the following is positive in Follicular lymphoma
(1) None of the above
(2) Bcl 2
(3) Bcl 1
(4) Bcl 6 | Bcl 2 | Bcl 6 | Bcl 1 | None of the above | 0 | multi | * Burkitt lymphoma and Follicular lymphoma arises from Germinal center B cell * Mantle cell lymphoma arises from Naive B cell * Hairy cell leukemia and extranodal marginal zone lymphoma arises from Memory B cell Translocation In :- * Burkitt lymphoma t (8:14) * Follicular lymphoma t (14:18) * Mantle zone lymphoma t(11:... | Pathology | Haematology | (2) Bcl 2 | (1) None of the above
(2) Bcl 2
(3) Bcl 1
(4) Bcl 6 | (2) | [
"(1)",
"(3)",
"(4)"
] | [
"(1) None of the above",
"(3) Bcl 1",
"(4) Bcl 6"
] | (1) None of the above | Choose the correct answer from the options below. | [
{
"content": "Which of the following is positive in Follicular lymphoma\n\n(1) None of the above\n(2) Bcl 2\n(3) Bcl 1\n(4) Bcl 6",
"role": "user"
},
{
"content": "(2) Bcl 2",
"role": "assistant"
}
] |
2a4e24cc-65cb-407e-9006-15f0d7ada202 | According to Pikham pediatric Dentistry what is the treatment in a child having laterally luxated teeth which are not in occlusion:
A) Grind the opposite teeth.
B) Wait and watch.
C) Immediate repositioning of the teeth.
D) Extraction. | Wait and watch. | Grind the opposite teeth. | Extraction. | Immediate repositioning of the teeth. | 2 | multi | Immediate treatment in a laterally luxated tooth is immediate repositioning and stabilization. But according to Pikham Pediatric Dentistry, he recommends extraction of Laterally luxated teeth because of the fear of aspiration. | Dental | null | D) Extraction. | A) Grind the opposite teeth.
B) Wait and watch.
C) Immediate repositioning of the teeth.
D) Extraction. | D) | [
"A)",
"B)",
"C)"
] | [
"A) Grind the opposite teeth.",
"B) Wait and watch.",
"C) Immediate repositioning of the teeth."
] | A) Grind the opposite teeth. | Choose the correct answer from the options below. | [
{
"content": "According to Pikham pediatric Dentistry what is the treatment in a child having laterally luxated teeth which are not in occlusion:\n\nA) Grind the opposite teeth.\nB) Wait and watch.\nC) Immediate repositioning of the teeth.\nD) Extraction.",
"role": "user"
},
{
"content": "D) Extract... |
c1d927bd-14f6-4d48-8420-54ead23e6bcf | An asymptomatic male came for USG abdomen for medical fitness. A focal lesion was found in his liver on ultrasound as shown here. The patient was told that this is the most common benign hepatic tumor. Which of the following is a false statement about this lesion?
A. Characteristic Centripetal fill-in appearance is se... | The most sensitive and specific investigation CT Triphasic Contrast | Most of these lesions are asymptomatic | Characteristic Centripetal fill-in appearance is seen on postcontrast study. | Angiography shows characteristic "cotton-wool" appearance. | 0 | multi | Ans. A. The most sensitive and specific investigation CT Triphasic ContrastHemangiomas are the commonest benign hepatic tumors with a prevalence at postmortem of between 4 per cent and 20 per cent. Multiple hemangiomas occur in up to 10 per cent of cases. They are composed of vascular channels of varying size (cavernou... | Radiology | G.I.T. | D. The most sensitive and specific investigation CT Triphasic Contrast | A. Characteristic Centripetal fill-in appearance is seen on postcontrast study.
B. Angiography shows characteristic "cotton-wool" appearance.
C. Most of these lesions are asymptomatic
D. The most sensitive and specific investigation CT Triphasic Contrast | D. | [
"A.",
"B.",
"C."
] | [
"A. Characteristic Centripetal fill-in appearance is seen on postcontrast study.",
"B. Angiography shows characteristic \"cotton-wool\" appearance.",
"C. Most of these lesions are asymptomatic"
] | C. Most of these lesions are asymptomatic | Choose the correct answer from the options below. | [
{
"content": "An asymptomatic male came for USG abdomen for medical fitness. A focal lesion was found in his liver on ultrasound as shown here. The patient was told that this is the most common benign hepatic tumor. Which of the following is a false statement about this lesion?\n\nA. Characteristic Centripetal ... |
b92bcb87-dc43-4755-a662-1c3a2fc698f8 | Commonest site for carcinoma of the breast-
[1] Nipple
[2] Upper outer quadrant
[3] Lower inner quadrant
[4] Upper inner quadrant | Lower inner quadrant | Nipple | Upper inner quadrant | Upper outer quadrant | 3 | single | null | Surgery | null | [2] Upper outer quadrant | [1] Nipple
[2] Upper outer quadrant
[3] Lower inner quadrant
[4] Upper inner quadrant | [2] | [
"[1]",
"[3]",
"[4]"
] | [
"[1] Nipple",
"[3] Lower inner quadrant",
"[4] Upper inner quadrant"
] | [3] Lower inner quadrant | Choose the correct answer from the options below. | [
{
"content": "Commonest site for carcinoma of the breast-\n\n[1] Nipple\n[2] Upper outer quadrant\n[3] Lower inner quadrant\n[4] Upper inner quadrant",
"role": "user"
},
{
"content": "[2] Upper outer quadrant",
"role": "assistant"
}
] |
b2173dce-e6ef-48aa-bc40-a18f86b4f016 | Paltauf's hemorrhage may be seen in:
(a) Snake bite
(b) Rape
(c) Drowning.
(d) Hanging | Drowning. | Hanging | Snake bite | Rape | 0 | single | Ans. a (Drowning)In drowning, fluid actually penetrates alveolar wall to enter tissues & the blood vessels.The alveolar wall may rupture due to increased pressure during the forced expiration & produce hemorrhage which when presents subpleurally is called Paltauf 's haemorrhage.Paltauf's haemorrhages are shining, pale ... | Forensic Medicine | Asphyxial Deaths | (c) Drowning. | (a) Snake bite
(b) Rape
(c) Drowning.
(d) Hanging | (c) | [
"(a)",
"(b)",
"(d)"
] | [
"(a) Snake bite",
"(b) Rape",
"(d) Hanging"
] | (a) Snake bite | Choose the correct answer from the options below. | [
{
"content": "Paltauf's hemorrhage may be seen in:\n\n(a) Snake bite\n(b) Rape\n(c) Drowning.\n(d) Hanging",
"role": "user"
},
{
"content": "(c) Drowning.",
"role": "assistant"
}
] |
83cdea73-2ee5-472f-b7c6-600cb98167b4 | Following total thyroidectomy the patient develops respiratory stridor. The cause is:
a) B/L complete paralysis
b) B/L recurrent laryngeal nerve paralysis
c) U/L complete paralysis
d) U/L recurrent laryngeal nerve paralysis | B/L recurrent laryngeal nerve paralysis | B/L complete paralysis | U/L recurrent laryngeal nerve paralysis | U/L complete paralysis | 0 | single | (a) B/L recurrent laryngeal nerve paralysis(Ref. Current Diagnosis & Treatment Otolaryngology, Lalwani, 3rd ed., 478)In B/L recurrent laryngeal nerve paralysis the vocal cords will be in median position, leading to stridor.Note: This is the only vocal cord palsy with stridor, breathing is normal in the remaining palsie... | ENT | Larynx | b) B/L recurrent laryngeal nerve paralysis | a) B/L complete paralysis
b) B/L recurrent laryngeal nerve paralysis
c) U/L complete paralysis
d) U/L recurrent laryngeal nerve paralysis | b) | [
"a)",
"c)",
"d)"
] | [
"a) B/L complete paralysis",
"c) U/L complete paralysis",
"d) U/L recurrent laryngeal nerve paralysis"
] | d) U/L recurrent laryngeal nerve paralysis | Choose the correct answer from the options below. | [
{
"content": "Following total thyroidectomy the patient develops respiratory stridor. The cause is:\n\na) B/L complete paralysis\nb) B/L recurrent laryngeal nerve paralysis\nc) U/L complete paralysis\nd) U/L recurrent laryngeal nerve paralysis",
"role": "user"
},
{
"content": "b) B/L recurrent laryn... |
613e5863-58f1-48e5-8b9f-a3b68c35f0b0 | Movement of denture base was the least in patient with poor ridges, when
[1] 20 degree teeth were used
[2] Inverted cusp teeth were used
[3] 33 degree teeth were used
[4] 0 degree teeth were used | 20 degree teeth were used | 33 degree teeth were used | 0 degree teeth were used | Inverted cusp teeth were used | 2 | single | null | Dental | null | [4] 0 degree teeth were used | [1] 20 degree teeth were used
[2] Inverted cusp teeth were used
[3] 33 degree teeth were used
[4] 0 degree teeth were used | [4] | [
"[1]",
"[2]",
"[3]"
] | [
"[1] 20 degree teeth were used",
"[2] Inverted cusp teeth were used",
"[3] 33 degree teeth were used"
] | [2] Inverted cusp teeth were used | Choose the correct answer from the options below. | [
{
"content": "Movement of denture base was the least in patient with poor ridges, when\n\n[1] 20 degree teeth were used\n[2] Inverted cusp teeth were used\n[3] 33 degree teeth were used\n[4] 0 degree teeth were used",
"role": "user"
},
{
"content": "[4] 0 degree teeth were used",
"role": "assist... |
8d5efc6b-fed6-45b9-996b-e0b80ae98abf | Lowe's syndrome is characterised by the following except-
i. Aminoaciduria
ii. Undescended testes
iii. Hypophosphatamic rickets
iv. Defect in the CNS and eyes | Hypophosphatamic rickets | Undescended testes | Defect in the CNS and eyes | Aminoaciduria | 1 | multi | Ans. is 'b' i.e., Undescendended testes Lowe's syndrome It is also known as oculocerebrorenal syndrome of Lowe. o It is X-linked disorder. It is characterized by : i) Congenital cataract ii) Mental retardation iii) Fanconi syndrome --> Aminoacidurina o The disease is caused by mutation in the OCRL1 gene, which encodes ... | Pediatrics | null | ii. Undescended testes | i. Aminoaciduria
ii. Undescended testes
iii. Hypophosphatamic rickets
iv. Defect in the CNS and eyes | ii. | [
"i.",
"iii.",
"iv."
] | [
"i. Aminoaciduria",
"iii. Hypophosphatamic rickets",
"iv. Defect in the CNS and eyes"
] | i. Aminoaciduria | Choose the correct answer from the options below. | [
{
"content": "Lowe's syndrome is characterised by the following except-\n\ni. Aminoaciduria\nii. Undescended testes\niii. Hypophosphatamic rickets\niv. Defect in the CNS and eyes",
"role": "user"
},
{
"content": "ii. Undescended testes",
"role": "assistant"
}
] |
ed8d4a38-0474-44cd-8fb1-06c10714f07f | Which amino acid plays a vital role in Neutrophil extracellular traps?
A. Arginine
B. Valine
C. Aspartic acid
D. Isoleucine | Arginine | Valine | Isoleucine | Aspartic acid | 0 | single | Arginine amino acid is required for breakdown of histone polynucleotidyl complexes necessary for neutrophilic extra cellular trap. | Pathology | null | A. Arginine | A. Arginine
B. Valine
C. Aspartic acid
D. Isoleucine | A. | [
"B.",
"C.",
"D."
] | [
"B. Valine",
"C. Aspartic acid",
"D. Isoleucine"
] | C. Aspartic acid | Choose the correct answer from the options below. | [
{
"content": "Which amino acid plays a vital role in Neutrophil extracellular traps?\n\nA. Arginine\nB. Valine\nC. Aspartic acid\nD. Isoleucine",
"role": "user"
},
{
"content": "A. Arginine",
"role": "assistant"
}
] |
b6ecd5e4-8fea-40e6-89db-012d5f42dd83 | Hydrolysis of which of the following yields 10.5 Kcal energy?
i. UTP
ii. GTP
iii. ATP
iv. Creatine phosphate | ATP | GTP | UTP | Creatine phosphate | 3 | single | ANSWER: (D) Creatine phosphateREF: Harper 28th ed Table 11-1Free Energy of Hydrolysis of Some Organophosphates of Biochemical Importance DGdegCompoundkJ/molkcal/molPhosphoenolpyruvate-61.9-14.8Carbamoyl phosphate-51.4-12.31,3-Bispbosphoglycerate (to 3-phosphogiycerate)-49.3-11.8Creatine phosphate-43.1-10.3ATP - AMP + P... | Biochemistry | Respiratory Chain | iv. Creatine phosphate | i. UTP
ii. GTP
iii. ATP
iv. Creatine phosphate | iv. | [
"i.",
"ii.",
"iii."
] | [
"i. UTP",
"ii. GTP",
"iii. ATP"
] | iii. ATP | Choose the correct answer from the options below. | [
{
"content": "Hydrolysis of which of the following yields 10.5 Kcal energy?\n\ni. UTP\nii. GTP\niii. ATP\niv. Creatine phosphate",
"role": "user"
},
{
"content": "iv. Creatine phosphate",
"role": "assistant"
}
] |
c69008f5-f840-4998-8914-9a409dfb4fb9 | A 19-year-old patient complains of primary amenorrhea. She had well developed breast and pubic hair but on examination there was absence of uterus and vagina. Likely diagnosis is :
[a] Mullerian agenesis
[b] XYY
[c] Gonadal dysgenesis
[d] Klinefelter syndrome | XYY | Mullerian agenesis | Gonadal dysgenesis | Klinefelter syndrome | 1 | single | Developmental defect of the Mullerian ducts resulting in the condition described as the Mayer-Rokitansky-Kuster-Hauser (MRHK) syndrome. The MRHK syndrome occurs in 1:5000-1:20,000 women at bih, and is diagnosed in approximately 1:1500 gynaecologic admissions. The clinical features include primary amenorrhoea, paial or ... | Gynaecology & Obstetrics | Disorders of menstruation | [a] Mullerian agenesis | [a] Mullerian agenesis
[b] XYY
[c] Gonadal dysgenesis
[d] Klinefelter syndrome | [a] | [
"[b]",
"[c]",
"[d]"
] | [
"[b] XYY",
"[c] Gonadal dysgenesis",
"[d] Klinefelter syndrome"
] | [b] XYY | Choose the correct answer from the options below. | [
{
"content": "A 19-year-old patient complains of primary amenorrhea. She had well developed breast and pubic hair but on examination there was absence of uterus and vagina. Likely diagnosis is :\n\n[a] Mullerian agenesis\n[b] XYY\n[c] Gonadal dysgenesis\n[d] Klinefelter syndrome",
"role": "user"
},
{
... |
917f9982-716e-4c16-8611-87873f22877f | You are being asked to give your expe opinion as a toxicologist regarding an effective antidote for belladonna poisoning. Which of the following agents would you suggest?
1. Pilocarpine
2. Atropine
3. Neostigmine
4. Physostigmine | Neostigmine | Physostigmine | Pilocarpine | Atropine | 1 | single | - Atropine is obtained from atropa belladonna. - It is non selective muscarinic receptor antagonist Physostigmine is the specific antidote for poisoning with belladonna . It crosses blood-brain barrier and antagonises both central and peripheral actions. Physostigmine sometimes itself induces hypotension, arrhythmias a... | Pharmacology | ANS | 4. Physostigmine | 1. Pilocarpine
2. Atropine
3. Neostigmine
4. Physostigmine | 4. | [
"1.",
"2.",
"3."
] | [
"1. Pilocarpine",
"2. Atropine",
"3. Neostigmine"
] | 3. Neostigmine | Choose the correct answer from the options below. | [
{
"content": "You are being asked to give your expe opinion as a toxicologist regarding an effective antidote for belladonna poisoning. Which of the following agents would you suggest?\n\n1. Pilocarpine\n2. Atropine\n3. Neostigmine\n4. Physostigmine",
"role": "user"
},
{
"content": "4. Physostigmine... |
15372cb0-f9d6-4afb-b9ee-bf56b45f8f44 | A 52 year old male with a history of hea disease presents with sudden painless loss of vision in one eye. Examination reveals cherry red spot. Diagnosis is:
1) Diabetic retinopathy
2) Acute ischemic optic neuritis
3) Central retinal aery occlusion
4) Central retinal vein occlusion | Central retinal vein occlusion | Central retinal aery occlusion | Diabetic retinopathy | Acute ischemic optic neuritis | 1 | single | Central retinal aery occlusion: It occurs due to obstruction at the level of lamina cribrosa. Causes sudden painless loss of vision. Retina becomes white due to oedema & a cherry red spot is seen at the fovea. Aerioles become narrow & blood column within the retinal vessels is segmented. Resuscitation time of the human... | Ophthalmology | null | 3) Central retinal aery occlusion | 1) Diabetic retinopathy
2) Acute ischemic optic neuritis
3) Central retinal aery occlusion
4) Central retinal vein occlusion | 3) | [
"1)",
"2)",
"4)"
] | [
"1) Diabetic retinopathy",
"2) Acute ischemic optic neuritis",
"4) Central retinal vein occlusion"
] | 4) Central retinal vein occlusion | Choose the correct answer from the options below. | [
{
"content": "A 52 year old male with a history of hea disease presents with sudden painless loss of vision in one eye. Examination reveals cherry red spot. Diagnosis is:\n\n1) Diabetic retinopathy\n2) Acute ischemic optic neuritis\n3) Central retinal aery occlusion\n4) Central retinal vein occlusion",
"rol... |
ca3f0057-0329-4804-bfe7-1594c570f88a | Lower level of scapula is at the level of?
(a) T6
(b) T4
(c) T7
(d) T5 | T4 | T5 | T6 | T7 | 3 | single | The inferior angle lies over the 7th rib or the 7th intercoastal space. Reference:page no:17 - vishram singh - upper limb & thorax, 2nd edition. | Anatomy | Upper limb | (c) T7 | (a) T6
(b) T4
(c) T7
(d) T5 | (c) | [
"(a)",
"(b)",
"(d)"
] | [
"(a) T6",
"(b) T4",
"(d) T5"
] | (b) T4 | Choose the correct answer from the options below. | [
{
"content": "Lower level of scapula is at the level of?\n\n(a) T6\n(b) T4\n(c) T7\n(d) T5",
"role": "user"
},
{
"content": "(c) T7",
"role": "assistant"
}
] |
1e755453-494b-422d-b665-2103ce8d4129 | Measles epidemic can be anticipated when proportion of suceptible children in a community
1. 40%
2. 20%
3. 80%
4. 60% | 20% | 40% | 60% | 80% | 1 | single | null | Social & Preventive Medicine | null | 1. 40% | 1. 40%
2. 20%
3. 80%
4. 60% | 1. | [
"2.",
"3.",
"4."
] | [
"2. 20%",
"3. 80%",
"4. 60%"
] | 2. 20% | Choose the correct answer from the options below. | [
{
"content": "Measles epidemic can be anticipated when proportion of suceptible children in a community\n\n1. 40%\n2. 20%\n3. 80%\n4. 60%",
"role": "user"
},
{
"content": "1. 40%",
"role": "assistant"
}
] |
61e00303-9d23-4267-a808-e28c7333b0ba | The most likely diagnosis is a case of the intractable convulsions mental defect and facial nevus is-
[a] Sturge Weber syndrome
[b] Von-Hippen -Lindau disease
[c] Tuberous sclerosis
[d] Von- Reckling-Hausens disease | Sturge Weber syndrome | Tuberous sclerosis | Von-Hippen -Lindau disease | Von- Reckling-Hausens disease | 0 | single | Sturge Weber syndrome and Von-Reckling-Hausen disease (NF-1) have been explained earlier about other options.
Tuberous sclerosis ( Bourneville's disease)
Tuberous sclerosis is characterized by : -
Cutaneous lesions → Adenoma sebaceum, ash-leaf shaped hypopigmented macules, shagreen patches, depigmented nevi.
Seizu... | Pathology | null | [a] Sturge Weber syndrome | [a] Sturge Weber syndrome
[b] Von-Hippen -Lindau disease
[c] Tuberous sclerosis
[d] Von- Reckling-Hausens disease | [a] | [
"[b]",
"[c]",
"[d]"
] | [
"[b] Von-Hippen -Lindau disease",
"[c] Tuberous sclerosis",
"[d] Von- Reckling-Hausens disease"
] | [d] Von- Reckling-Hausens disease | Choose the correct answer from the options below. | [
{
"content": "The most likely diagnosis is a case of the intractable convulsions mental defect and facial nevus is-\n\n[a] Sturge Weber syndrome\n[b] Von-Hippen -Lindau disease\n[c] Tuberous sclerosis\n[d] Von- Reckling-Hausens disease",
"role": "user"
},
{
"content": "[a] Sturge Weber syndrome",
... |
8707f715-f2c8-42e6-a2b9-6a939d92baf7 | A 60-year-old male Suresh is hospitalized with muscle pain, fatigue and dark urine. His past medical history is significant for stable angina. The patient's medications include atenolol, atorvastatin, and aspirin. His urine dipstick test is positive for blood but urine microscopy did not reveal RBCs in the urine. Serum... | Erythromycin | Rifampin | Griseofulvin | Amikacin | 0 | single | Diagnosis in this condition is Rhabdomyolysis suggested by myoglobinuria (red coloured urine without RBCs) and raised creatinine kinase levels. Statins can cause serious s/e like myopathy and hepatitis. Most statins are metabolized by cytochrome P-450 3A4, with the exception of pravastatin. Concomitant administration o... | Pharmacology | Hematology and CVS | D) Erythromycin | A) Rifampin
B) Amikacin
C) Griseofulvin
D) Erythromycin | D) | [
"A)",
"B)",
"C)"
] | [
"A) Rifampin",
"B) Amikacin",
"C) Griseofulvin"
] | A) Rifampin | Choose the correct answer from the options below. | [
{
"content": "A 60-year-old male Suresh is hospitalized with muscle pain, fatigue and dark urine. His past medical history is significant for stable angina. The patient's medications include atenolol, atorvastatin, and aspirin. His urine dipstick test is positive for blood but urine microscopy did not reveal RB... |
80f33d11-5fbd-4d22-8ef5-fb0470458d20 | The period from acquiring inrfection to maximum infectivity is called as-
(1) Incubation period
(2) Generation time
(3) Secondary interval
(4) Serial time | Generation time | Serial time | Incubation period | Secondary interval | 0 | multi | In general, generation time is roughly equal to incubation period. But these 2 terms are not the same. The time of maximum communicability may precede or follow the incubation period. Ref: 25th edition, Park's Textbook of Preventive and Social Medicine, Page no. 108 | Social & Preventive Medicine | Epidemiology | (2) Generation time | (1) Incubation period
(2) Generation time
(3) Secondary interval
(4) Serial time | (2) | [
"(1)",
"(3)",
"(4)"
] | [
"(1) Incubation period",
"(3) Secondary interval",
"(4) Serial time"
] | (4) Serial time | Choose the correct answer from the options below. | [
{
"content": "The period from acquiring inrfection to maximum infectivity is called as-\n\n(1) Incubation period\n(2) Generation time\n(3) Secondary interval\n(4) Serial time",
"role": "user"
},
{
"content": "(2) Generation time",
"role": "assistant"
}
] |
a58e058e-02b3-4cc7-be57-318d9874fba1 | Collapsing glomerulopathy is seen in?
(A) Tuberculosis
(B) HIV
(C) IgA nephropathy
(D) Post streptococcal GN | Post streptococcal GN | HIV | IgA nephropathy | Tuberculosis | 1 | single | Ans. is 'b' i.e., HIV Collapsing glomerulopathy:* It is a morphological variant of FSGS. Characterized by collapse and sclerosis of the entire glomerular tuft in addition to the usual FSGS lesions. A characteristic feature is proliferation and hypertrophy of glomerular visceral epithelial cells (podocytes). There is pr... | Pathology | Kidney | (B) HIV | (A) Tuberculosis
(B) HIV
(C) IgA nephropathy
(D) Post streptococcal GN | (B) | [
"(A)",
"(C)",
"(D)"
] | [
"(A) Tuberculosis",
"(C) IgA nephropathy",
"(D) Post streptococcal GN"
] | (A) Tuberculosis | Choose the correct answer from the options below. | [
{
"content": "Collapsing glomerulopathy is seen in?\n\n(A) Tuberculosis\n(B) HIV\n(C) IgA nephropathy\n(D) Post streptococcal GN",
"role": "user"
},
{
"content": "(B) HIV",
"role": "assistant"
}
] |
c9f18487-4543-45ab-936f-1e19d8e256d5 | Most common site of Morgagni hernia:
[1] Right anterior
[2] Left posterior
[3] Left anterior
[4] Right posterior | Right anterior | Right posterior | Left anterior | Left posterior | 0 | single | Right anterior Repeat from Nov 06 Morgagni hernia is a rare form of cong. diaphragmatic hernia occurring through foramen of Morgagni or space of Larrey i.e. space between the sternal and costal origins of the diaphragm) It is more common on right side. Usually it is asymptomatic Most common viscera to herniate through ... | Surgery | null | [1] Right anterior | [1] Right anterior
[2] Left posterior
[3] Left anterior
[4] Right posterior | [1] | [
"[2]",
"[3]",
"[4]"
] | [
"[2] Left posterior",
"[3] Left anterior",
"[4] Right posterior"
] | [4] Right posterior | Choose the correct answer from the options below. | [
{
"content": "Most common site of Morgagni hernia:\n\n[1] Right anterior\n[2] Left posterior\n[3] Left anterior\n[4] Right posterior",
"role": "user"
},
{
"content": "[1] Right anterior",
"role": "assistant"
}
] |
9c72705a-6d3a-4741-b030-26399f390e40 | All of the following are true of Eales disease except –
[A] Retinal detachment
[B] Optic neuritis
[C] Occurs in the young
[D] Vitreous hemorrhage is present | Occurs in the young | Vitreous hemorrhage is present | Retinal detachment | Optic neuritis | 3 | multi | Eale's disease is characterized by recurrent bilateral vitreous hemorrhage in young adult (20-30 yrs) males.
Tractional retinal detachment may occur as a complication. Optic neuritis is not a feature of Eale's disease. | Ophthalmology | null | [B] Optic neuritis | [A] Retinal detachment
[B] Optic neuritis
[C] Occurs in the young
[D] Vitreous hemorrhage is present | [B] | [
"[A]",
"[C]",
"[D]"
] | [
"[A] Retinal detachment",
"[C] Occurs in the young",
"[D] Vitreous hemorrhage is present"
] | [A] Retinal detachment | Choose the correct answer from the options below. | [
{
"content": "All of the following are true of Eales disease except –\n\n[A] Retinal detachment\n[B] Optic neuritis\n[C] Occurs in the young\n[D] Vitreous hemorrhage is present",
"role": "user"
},
{
"content": "[B] Optic neuritis",
"role": "assistant"
}
] |
b495f2ce-4022-4c43-b232-7fc500e4d0dd | A 35 year old lady Malti has unilateral headache, nausea, vomiting and visual blurring. The diagnosis is -
(A) Glaucoma
(B) Subarachnoid haemorrhage
(C) Cluster headache
(D) Posterior fossa cyst | Cluster headache | Glaucoma | Subarachnoid haemorrhage | Posterior fossa cyst | 1 | single | null | Medicine | null | (A) Glaucoma | (A) Glaucoma
(B) Subarachnoid haemorrhage
(C) Cluster headache
(D) Posterior fossa cyst | (A) | [
"(B)",
"(C)",
"(D)"
] | [
"(B) Subarachnoid haemorrhage",
"(C) Cluster headache",
"(D) Posterior fossa cyst"
] | (C) Cluster headache | Choose the correct answer from the options below. | [
{
"content": "A 35 year old lady Malti has unilateral headache, nausea, vomiting and visual blurring. The diagnosis is -\n\n(A) Glaucoma\n(B) Subarachnoid haemorrhage\n(C) Cluster headache\n(D) Posterior fossa cyst",
"role": "user"
},
{
"content": "(A) Glaucoma",
"role": "assistant"
}
] |
832534dc-8c77-4f76-ad37-38d8721c46f3 | To obtain best long term result, which of the
following procedures for augmentation genioplasty is recommended:
I. Pedicled horizontal sliding osteotomy
II. Injection of silastic gel
III. Insertion of silastic rubber implant
IV. On lay bone graft | On lay bone graft | Injection of silastic gel | Insertion of silastic rubber implant | Pedicled horizontal sliding osteotomy | 3 | single | null | Surgery | null | I. Pedicled horizontal sliding osteotomy | I. Pedicled horizontal sliding osteotomy
II. Injection of silastic gel
III. Insertion of silastic rubber implant
IV. On lay bone graft | I. | [
"II.",
"III.",
"IV."
] | [
"II. Injection of silastic gel",
"III. Insertion of silastic rubber implant",
"IV. On lay bone graft"
] | IV. On lay bone graft | Choose the correct answer from the options below. | [
{
"content": "To obtain best long term result, which of the\nfollowing procedures for augmentation genioplasty is recommended:\n\nI. Pedicled horizontal sliding osteotomy\nII. Injection of silastic gel\nIII. Insertion of silastic rubber implant\nIV. On lay bone graft",
"role": "user"
},
{
"content":... |
817bb345-887d-425f-bc3e-29deb71eeb2e | Absent/hypoplastic radius is a feature of?
(A) Holt-Oram syndrome
(B) Chondrodysplasia punctata
(C) CCD
(D) Spondyloepiphyseal dysplasia | Holt-Oram syndrome | Spondyloepiphyseal dysplasia | Chondrodysplasia punctata | CCD | 0 | single | Ans ARadial hypoplasia more commonly a sporadic mutation rather than an inherited condition. In case of an inherited condition, several syndromes are known such as the Holt- Oram syndrome, VATER syndrome, Fanconi anemia and TAR syndrome. Other possible causes are an injury to the apical ectodermal ridge during upper li... | Radiology | Skeletal System | (A) Holt-Oram syndrome | (A) Holt-Oram syndrome
(B) Chondrodysplasia punctata
(C) CCD
(D) Spondyloepiphyseal dysplasia | (A) | [
"(B)",
"(C)",
"(D)"
] | [
"(B) Chondrodysplasia punctata",
"(C) CCD",
"(D) Spondyloepiphyseal dysplasia"
] | (C) CCD | Choose the correct answer from the options below. | [
{
"content": "Absent/hypoplastic radius is a feature of?\n\n(A) Holt-Oram syndrome\n(B) Chondrodysplasia punctata\n(C) CCD\n(D) Spondyloepiphyseal dysplasia",
"role": "user"
},
{
"content": "(A) Holt-Oram syndrome",
"role": "assistant"
}
] |
aebe6054-dc3e-461b-9e64-9d9f36279664 | A 28 year old boy met with on accident and sustained severe crush injury. He is most likely to develop:
A) Acute Renal Failure
B) Acute Myocardial Infarction
C) Hypercalcemia
D) Hypophosphatemia | Acute Renal Failure | Hypophosphatemia | Hypercalcemia | Acute Myocardial Infarction | 0 | single | Answer is A (Acute Renal Failure): Acute Renal failure is an established complication of crush syndrome. Acute Renal Failure is usually caused by a combination of hypovolemia and release of nephrotoxic substances into the circulation such as myoglobin Crush syndrome is associated with hvpocalcemia and hvperphosphatemia... | Medicine | null | A) Acute Renal Failure | A) Acute Renal Failure
B) Acute Myocardial Infarction
C) Hypercalcemia
D) Hypophosphatemia | A) | [
"B)",
"C)",
"D)"
] | [
"B) Acute Myocardial Infarction",
"C) Hypercalcemia",
"D) Hypophosphatemia"
] | B) Acute Myocardial Infarction | Choose the correct answer from the options below. | [
{
"content": "A 28 year old boy met with on accident and sustained severe crush injury. He is most likely to develop:\n\nA) Acute Renal Failure\nB) Acute Myocardial Infarction\nC) Hypercalcemia\nD) Hypophosphatemia",
"role": "user"
},
{
"content": "A) Acute Renal Failure",
"role": "assistant"
... |
17cf6c67-b578-4d95-9b25-dc7b169db46f | Vaccines contraindicated in HIV positive child -
i. Rabies
ii. MMR
iii. Influenza
iv. OPV | OPV | MMR | Rabies | Influenza | 0 | single | All live attenuated vaccines are contraindicated in HIV, as it can precipitate the infection due to imnunosuporessio. BCG,OPV ,measles are contraindicated in HIV Reference: Essential pediatrics,op ghai,9 th edition,pg no: 188 189 | Pediatrics | Infectious disease | iv. OPV | i. Rabies
ii. MMR
iii. Influenza
iv. OPV | iv. | [
"i.",
"ii.",
"iii."
] | [
"i. Rabies",
"ii. MMR",
"iii. Influenza"
] | iii. Influenza | Choose the correct answer from the options below. | [
{
"content": "Vaccines contraindicated in HIV positive child -\n\ni. Rabies\nii. MMR\niii. Influenza\niv. OPV",
"role": "user"
},
{
"content": "iv. OPV",
"role": "assistant"
}
] |
47b51eac-a25a-4ee0-9864-0b2c8e48f7d4 | Takayam test is used for ?
1. None of the above
2. To know the species
3. For blood grouping
4. To know the nature of stain | To know the nature of stain | To know the species | For blood grouping | None of the above | 0 | multi | Ans. is 'a' i.e., To know the nature of stain It is a microchemical test to know the nature of stain.Microchemical tests :These tests are based on propey of haem pa of hemoglobin to form characteristic coloured crystals.Teichmann's haemin crystal testTakayama hemochromogen crystal testLuminal spray test : It is especia... | Forensic Medicine | null | 4. To know the nature of stain | 1. None of the above
2. To know the species
3. For blood grouping
4. To know the nature of stain | 4. | [
"1.",
"2.",
"3."
] | [
"1. None of the above",
"2. To know the species",
"3. For blood grouping"
] | 2. To know the species | Choose the correct answer from the options below. | [
{
"content": "Takayam test is used for ?\n\n1. None of the above\n2. To know the species\n3. For blood grouping\n4. To know the nature of stain",
"role": "user"
},
{
"content": "4. To know the nature of stain",
"role": "assistant"
}
] |
3b4752a3-eff0-4d82-bbcf-9ce7993b94d1 | Grievous hu comes under which section of IPC?
(1) Section 320
(2) Section 319
(3) Section 324
(4) Section 326 | Section 319 | Section 320 | Section 324 | Section 326 | 1 | single | Section 320 REF: Textbook of Forensic Medicine and Toxicology by Nagesh Kumar Rao Page 259 Section 320: Grievous hu The following kinds of hu only are designated as "grievous" Emasculation Permanent privation of the sight of either eye Permanent privation of the hearing of either ear Privation of any member or joint De... | Forensic Medicine | null | (1) Section 320 | (1) Section 320
(2) Section 319
(3) Section 324
(4) Section 326 | (1) | [
"(2)",
"(3)",
"(4)"
] | [
"(2) Section 319",
"(3) Section 324",
"(4) Section 326"
] | (2) Section 319 | Choose the correct answer from the options below. | [
{
"content": "Grievous hu comes under which section of IPC?\n\n(1) Section 320\n(2) Section 319\n(3) Section 324\n(4) Section 326",
"role": "user"
},
{
"content": "(1) Section 320",
"role": "assistant"
}
] |
0d4d4dfe-7061-4678-afab-a43182634a00 | Drug used in remodeling of hea in congestive cardiac failure are all EXCEPT -
(1) Digoxin
(2) Beta blocker
(3) ACE inhibitor
(4) Aldosterone antagonist | Beta blocker | ACE inhibitor | Digoxin | Aldosterone antagonist | 2 | multi | Ans. is 'c' i.e., Digoxin | Pharmacology | null | (1) Digoxin | (1) Digoxin
(2) Beta blocker
(3) ACE inhibitor
(4) Aldosterone antagonist | (1) | [
"(2)",
"(3)",
"(4)"
] | [
"(2) Beta blocker",
"(3) ACE inhibitor",
"(4) Aldosterone antagonist"
] | (2) Beta blocker | Choose the correct answer from the options below. | [
{
"content": "Drug used in remodeling of hea in congestive cardiac failure are all EXCEPT -\n\n(1) Digoxin\n(2) Beta blocker\n(3) ACE inhibitor\n(4) Aldosterone antagonist",
"role": "user"
},
{
"content": "(1) Digoxin",
"role": "assistant"
}
] |
3c446c65-404b-4f15-ac36-fc98764b437a | The Myer-Cotton grading system is used for:
[1] Tonsillitis
[2] None of the above
[3] Sinisitis
[4] Subglottic stenosis | Subglottic stenosis | Tonsillitis | Sinisitis | None of the above | 0 | multi | The Myer-Cotton grading system describes the severity of stenosis according to the percentage of subglottic stenosis present. The percentage is calculated by measuring the largest sized endotracheal tube that can be passed through the subglottis and comparing this with the age-appropriate tube size for the child | ENT | null | [4] Subglottic stenosis | [1] Tonsillitis
[2] None of the above
[3] Sinisitis
[4] Subglottic stenosis | [4] | [
"[1]",
"[2]",
"[3]"
] | [
"[1] Tonsillitis",
"[2] None of the above",
"[3] Sinisitis"
] | [2] None of the above | Choose the correct answer from the options below. | [
{
"content": "The Myer-Cotton grading system is used for:\n\n[1] Tonsillitis\n[2] None of the above\n[3] Sinisitis\n[4] Subglottic stenosis",
"role": "user"
},
{
"content": "[4] Subglottic stenosis",
"role": "assistant"
}
] |
f0fc71dd-c91a-4b85-a967-48257cbb0057 | Most common presentation of cardiac lupus?
(A) Myocarditis
(B) Aortic regurgitation
(C) Libman sacks endocarditis
(D) Pericarditis | Myocarditis | Pericarditis | Aortic regurgitation | Libman sacks endocarditis | 1 | single | Ans. is 'b' i.e., Pericarditis Cardiopulmonary involvement in SLEo Pleurisy, pericarditis, effusions.o Myocarditis, endocarditiso Lupus pneumonitiso Coronary artery disease:# Interstitial fibrosis# Pulmonaiy hypertension# Shrinking lung syndrome# ARDS, hemorrhage | Medicine | Cardiomyopathy & Pericarditis | (D) Pericarditis | (A) Myocarditis
(B) Aortic regurgitation
(C) Libman sacks endocarditis
(D) Pericarditis | (D) | [
"(A)",
"(B)",
"(C)"
] | [
"(A) Myocarditis",
"(B) Aortic regurgitation",
"(C) Libman sacks endocarditis"
] | (A) Myocarditis | Choose the correct answer from the options below. | [
{
"content": "Most common presentation of cardiac lupus?\n\n(A) Myocarditis\n(B) Aortic regurgitation\n(C) Libman sacks endocarditis\n(D) Pericarditis",
"role": "user"
},
{
"content": "(D) Pericarditis",
"role": "assistant"
}
] |
b562d110-bd6c-4d6d-92e3-58b1ded1cf8a | Which one of the following is not used as a tumor marker in testicular tumors?
A) LDH
B) CEA
C) HCG
D) AFP | AFP | LDH | HCG | CEA | 3 | single | CEA is an oncofetal antigen and may be used as a tumor marker in adenocarcinoma of colon, pancreas, lung, breast, and ovary. However not used as a marker for germ cell tumorsTumor markers for germ cell tumors:Alpha-fetoprotein seen in non-seminomatous germ cell tumorsHCG: 1. non-seminomatous germ cell tumors; 2. Non-se... | Medicine | All India exam | B) CEA | A) LDH
B) CEA
C) HCG
D) AFP | B) | [
"A)",
"C)",
"D)"
] | [
"A) LDH",
"C) HCG",
"D) AFP"
] | C) HCG | Choose the correct answer from the options below. | [
{
"content": "Which one of the following is not used as a tumor marker in testicular tumors?\n\nA) LDH\nB) CEA\nC) HCG\nD) AFP",
"role": "user"
},
{
"content": "B) CEA",
"role": "assistant"
}
] |
3843d62c-0290-4f6d-bdc4-f4a8fa22a710 | Which one is not true regarding pseudocyst of pancreas
i. Cystogastrostomy is the ideal T/t
ii. Increase level of amylase
iii. Percutaneus aspiration is the T/t
iv. Epigastric mass | Increase level of amylase | Epigastric mass | Cystogastrostomy is the ideal T/t | Percutaneus aspiration is the T/t | 3 | multi | Percutaneous aspiration is preferred only in cases of infected cyst and abscesses, other wise internal drainage is the t/t of choice. Epigastric mass is the main symptom of the pseudocyst. Increased level of amylase is usually elevated with pancreatic pseudocysts Ref - Srb's manual of surgery 5e p690 | Anatomy | G.I.T | iii. Percutaneus aspiration is the T/t | i. Cystogastrostomy is the ideal T/t
ii. Increase level of amylase
iii. Percutaneus aspiration is the T/t
iv. Epigastric mass | iii. | [
"i.",
"ii.",
"iv."
] | [
"i. Cystogastrostomy is the ideal T/t",
"ii. Increase level of amylase",
"iv. Epigastric mass"
] | i. Cystogastrostomy is the ideal T/t | Choose the correct answer from the options below. | [
{
"content": "Which one is not true regarding pseudocyst of pancreas\n\ni. Cystogastrostomy is the ideal T/t\nii. Increase level of amylase\niii. Percutaneus aspiration is the T/t\niv. Epigastric mass",
"role": "user"
},
{
"content": "iii. Percutaneus aspiration is the T/t",
"role": "assistant"
... |
d39dd169-b4ef-4356-9f6d-95432942d02b | Sex worker with discharging ulcer, gram negative diplococci & growth on modified Thayer martin media. Diagnosis -
i. Chaneroid
ii. N. gonococci
iii. LGV
iv. Syphilis | N. gonococci | Syphilis | LGV | Chaneroid | 0 | single | Ans. is 'a' i.e., N. gonococcio Information in this question are -Gram negative diplococci.Growth on modified Thayer-martin media.o Neisseria gonorrhoeae is a gram negative diplococci and Thayer-martin medium is the selective medium for gonococci.Lab diagnosis of gonorrheao Urethral discharge is the most important spec... | Skin | S.T.D. | ii. N. gonococci | i. Chaneroid
ii. N. gonococci
iii. LGV
iv. Syphilis | ii. | [
"i.",
"iii.",
"iv."
] | [
"i. Chaneroid",
"iii. LGV",
"iv. Syphilis"
] | i. Chaneroid | Choose the correct answer from the options below. | [
{
"content": "Sex worker with discharging ulcer, gram negative diplococci & growth on modified Thayer martin media. Diagnosis -\n\ni. Chaneroid\nii. N. gonococci\niii. LGV\niv. Syphilis",
"role": "user"
},
{
"content": "ii. N. gonococci",
"role": "assistant"
}
] |
4492b962-da6e-4c98-97d2-d24f50ab6900 | Human immunoglobulin is given in all except
1. Measles
2. Hepatitis B
3. chickenpox
4. Rabies | Measles | Hepatitis B | Rabies | chickenpox | 0 | multi | null | Social & Preventive Medicine | null | 1. Measles | 1. Measles
2. Hepatitis B
3. chickenpox
4. Rabies | 1. | [
"2.",
"3.",
"4."
] | [
"2. Hepatitis B",
"3. chickenpox",
"4. Rabies"
] | 3. chickenpox | Choose the correct answer from the options below. | [
{
"content": "Human immunoglobulin is given in all except\n\n1. Measles\n2. Hepatitis B\n3. chickenpox\n4. Rabies",
"role": "user"
},
{
"content": "1. Measles",
"role": "assistant"
}
] |
69baf63c-32f8-4908-ac08-370cdeae84b6 | A cystic, painless swelling along the upper border of sternocleidomastoid muscle is most likely to be: March 2013 (b)
a) Branchial fistula
b) Branchial cyst
c) Thyroglossal cyst
d) Cystic hygroma | Thyroglossal cyst | Branchial cyst | Cystic hygroma | Branchial fistula | 1 | single | Ans. B i.e. Branchial cyst | Surgery | null | b) Branchial cyst | a) Branchial fistula
b) Branchial cyst
c) Thyroglossal cyst
d) Cystic hygroma | b) | [
"a)",
"c)",
"d)"
] | [
"a) Branchial fistula",
"c) Thyroglossal cyst",
"d) Cystic hygroma"
] | c) Thyroglossal cyst | Choose the correct answer from the options below. | [
{
"content": "A cystic, painless swelling along the upper border of sternocleidomastoid muscle is most likely to be: March 2013 (b)\n\na) Branchial fistula\nb) Branchial cyst\nc) Thyroglossal cyst\nd) Cystic hygroma",
"role": "user"
},
{
"content": "b) Branchial cyst",
"role": "assistant"
}
] |
b94c351a-1e91-4f40-92ad-8a85428eff30 | Identity the structure in the given chest X-ray:
A) Right-Costophrenic angle
B) Left-Costophrenic angle
C) Left-Cardiophrenic angle
D) Right-Cardiophrenic angle | Left-Costophrenic angle | Left-Cardiophrenic angle | Right-Costophrenic angle | Right-Cardiophrenic angle | 1 | single | Ans. b. Left-Cardiophrenic angle | Radiology | Respiratory System | C) Left-Cardiophrenic angle | A) Right-Costophrenic angle
B) Left-Costophrenic angle
C) Left-Cardiophrenic angle
D) Right-Cardiophrenic angle | C) | [
"A)",
"B)",
"D)"
] | [
"A) Right-Costophrenic angle",
"B) Left-Costophrenic angle",
"D) Right-Cardiophrenic angle"
] | B) Left-Costophrenic angle | Choose the correct answer from the options below. | [
{
"content": "Identity the structure in the given chest X-ray:\n\nA) Right-Costophrenic angle\nB) Left-Costophrenic angle\nC) Left-Cardiophrenic angle\nD) Right-Cardiophrenic angle",
"role": "user"
},
{
"content": "C) Left-Cardiophrenic angle",
"role": "assistant"
}
] |
be5141ed-acfa-4700-878c-2b1609f4eb88 | Which of the following is the only intrinsic muscle of larynx that lies outside the laryngeal framework
1) Lateral cricoarytenoid
2) Cricothyroid
3) Superior constrictor
4) Cricopharyngeus | Cricopharyngeus | Superior constrictor | Cricothyroid | Lateral cricoarytenoid | 2 | single | Cricothyroid muscle is the only intrinsic muscle which is supplied by external laryngeal nerve and lies outside the laryngeal framework. Ref:- Dhingra; pg num:-284 | ENT | Larynx | 2) Cricothyroid | 1) Lateral cricoarytenoid
2) Cricothyroid
3) Superior constrictor
4) Cricopharyngeus | 2) | [
"1)",
"3)",
"4)"
] | [
"1) Lateral cricoarytenoid",
"3) Superior constrictor",
"4) Cricopharyngeus"
] | 1) Lateral cricoarytenoid | Choose the correct answer from the options below. | [
{
"content": "Which of the following is the only intrinsic muscle of larynx that lies outside the laryngeal framework\n\n1) Lateral cricoarytenoid\n2) Cricothyroid\n3) Superior constrictor\n4) Cricopharyngeus",
"role": "user"
},
{
"content": "2) Cricothyroid",
"role": "assistant"
}
] |
8316ffdf-80d4-4e54-a136-a98d47df03b0 | True regarding primary sclerosing cholangitis associated with ulcerative colitis are all of the following except
I. Primary sclerosing cholangitis resolves after total colectomy
II. May have raised levels of alkaline phosphatase
III. Biliary cirrhosis is a known complication
IV. Increased risk of hilar cholangiocarcin... | Biliary cirrhosis is a known complication | Increased risk of hilar cholangiocarcinoma | May have raised levels of alkaline phosphatase | Primary sclerosing cholangitis resolves after total colectomy | 3 | multi | Patients with PSC and UC typically have a more quiescent disease course The risk for colon cancer in these patients is up to five times greater than in patients with ulcerative colitis alone. These tumors are more likely to arise proximal to the splenic flexure PSC is progressive and ultimately fatal unless liver trans... | Anatomy | G.I.T | I. Primary sclerosing cholangitis resolves after total colectomy | I. Primary sclerosing cholangitis resolves after total colectomy
II. May have raised levels of alkaline phosphatase
III. Biliary cirrhosis is a known complication
IV. Increased risk of hilar cholangiocarcinoma | I. | [
"II.",
"III.",
"IV."
] | [
"II. May have raised levels of alkaline phosphatase",
"III. Biliary cirrhosis is a known complication",
"IV. Increased risk of hilar cholangiocarcinoma"
] | IV. Increased risk of hilar cholangiocarcinoma | Choose the correct answer from the options below. | [
{
"content": "True regarding primary sclerosing cholangitis associated with ulcerative colitis are all of the following except\n\nI. Primary sclerosing cholangitis resolves after total colectomy\nII. May have raised levels of alkaline phosphatase\nIII. Biliary cirrhosis is a known complication\nIV. Increased ri... |
d444109d-2859-4130-86da-acc80bf71cbc | Ophthalmia neonatorum within first 48 hours of birth is caused by
[a] Adenovirus
[b] Chlamydia trachomatis
[c] Neiserria gonorhoeae
[d] Candida albicans | Adenovirus | Neiserria gonorhoeae | Candida albicans | Chlamydia trachomatis | 1 | single | Ans. b (Neisseria gonorrheae) (Ref: Parson's, 18th ed/140)DIFFERENTIAL DIAGNOSIS OF NEONATAL CONJUNCTIVITIS (OPHTHALMIA NEONATORUM)CauseOnsetFindingsCytology&lab tests(1)Toxic AgNO3- Silver nitrate (Crede's prophylaxis)Within hoursHyperemiaSlight watery to mucoid discharge. Negative culture(2)Gonococci (gonococcal conj... | Ophthalmology | Conjuctiva | [c] Neiserria gonorhoeae | [a] Adenovirus
[b] Chlamydia trachomatis
[c] Neiserria gonorhoeae
[d] Candida albicans | [c] | [
"[a]",
"[b]",
"[d]"
] | [
"[a] Adenovirus",
"[b] Chlamydia trachomatis",
"[d] Candida albicans"
] | [b] Chlamydia trachomatis | Choose the correct answer from the options below. | [
{
"content": "Ophthalmia neonatorum within first 48 hours of birth is caused by\n\n[a] Adenovirus\n[b] Chlamydia trachomatis\n[c] Neiserria gonorhoeae\n[d] Candida albicans",
"role": "user"
},
{
"content": "[c] Neiserria gonorhoeae",
"role": "assistant"
}
] |
bbf97527-6ff2-48be-b959-fc8f1b66164d | In pregnant diabetic intrauterine moality increases after the week of gestation :
a. 30th
b. 36th
c. 25th
d. 40th | 30th | 40th | 36th | 25th | 1 | single | 40th | Gynaecology & Obstetrics | null | d. 40th | a. 30th
b. 36th
c. 25th
d. 40th | d. | [
"a.",
"b.",
"c."
] | [
"a. 30th",
"b. 36th",
"c. 25th"
] | b. 36th | Choose the correct answer from the options below. | [
{
"content": "In pregnant diabetic intrauterine moality increases after the week of gestation :\n\na. 30th\nb. 36th\nc. 25th\nd. 40th",
"role": "user"
},
{
"content": "d. 40th",
"role": "assistant"
}
] |
5b91ea13-60b6-40cc-a919-0a889105b564 | The formation of which of the following does not represent normal physiological process of dentin formation:
i. Secondary dentin and circumpulpal dentin
ii. Tertiary dentin and sclerotic dentin
iii. Primary and secondary dentin
iv. All of the above | Primary and secondary dentin | Secondary dentin and circumpulpal dentin | Tertiary dentin and sclerotic dentin | All of the above | 2 | multi | null | Dental | null | ii. Tertiary dentin and sclerotic dentin | i. Secondary dentin and circumpulpal dentin
ii. Tertiary dentin and sclerotic dentin
iii. Primary and secondary dentin
iv. All of the above | ii. | [
"i.",
"iii.",
"iv."
] | [
"i. Secondary dentin and circumpulpal dentin",
"iii. Primary and secondary dentin",
"iv. All of the above"
] | i. Secondary dentin and circumpulpal dentin | Choose the correct answer from the options below. | [
{
"content": "The formation of which of the following does not represent normal physiological process of dentin formation:\n\ni. Secondary dentin and circumpulpal dentin\nii. Tertiary dentin and sclerotic dentin\niii. Primary and secondary dentin\niv. All of the above",
"role": "user"
},
{
"content"... |
9bd96247-bb26-44e4-9691-9097d710cbef | Drug of choice for infantile spasm is –
[A] Vigabatrin
[B] Carbamazepine
[C] ACTH
[D] Ethosuximide | Vigabatrin | ACTH | Ethosuximide | Carbamazepine | 0 | single | Myoclonic epilepsy may be
Infantile spasm or Infantile myoclonus or West syndrome
Juvenile myoclonic epilepsy
Infantile spasm (Infantile mvoclonus or west syndrome)
The onset is usually between 3-8 months of life
It is characterized by a triad of -
i) Salaam spells (sudden dropping of the head & flexion of arms)
ii... | Pediatrics | null | [A] Vigabatrin | [A] Vigabatrin
[B] Carbamazepine
[C] ACTH
[D] Ethosuximide | [A] | [
"[B]",
"[C]",
"[D]"
] | [
"[B] Carbamazepine",
"[C] ACTH",
"[D] Ethosuximide"
] | [C] ACTH | Choose the correct answer from the options below. | [
{
"content": "Drug of choice for infantile spasm is –\n\n[A] Vigabatrin\n[B] Carbamazepine\n[C] ACTH\n[D] Ethosuximide",
"role": "user"
},
{
"content": "[A] Vigabatrin",
"role": "assistant"
}
] |
6e1263bf-4a76-47f9-aaf0-f11fbd8fdf32 | A patient underwent Bhadrenalectomy in views of B/L pheochromocytoma 1 day later developed lethargy fatigue low BP and pulse normal No signs of volume deficit likely course
(a) DI
(b) SIADH
(c) Addisonian Crisis
(d) Cerebral salt wasting DISEASE | Addisonian Crisis | SIADH | DI | Cerebral salt wasting DISEASE | 0 | single | ref harissons 21st ed | Medicine | Haematology | (c) Addisonian Crisis | (a) DI
(b) SIADH
(c) Addisonian Crisis
(d) Cerebral salt wasting DISEASE | (c) | [
"(a)",
"(b)",
"(d)"
] | [
"(a) DI",
"(b) SIADH",
"(d) Cerebral salt wasting DISEASE"
] | (a) DI | Choose the correct answer from the options below. | [
{
"content": "A patient underwent Bhadrenalectomy in views of B/L pheochromocytoma 1 day later developed lethargy fatigue low BP and pulse normal No signs of volume deficit likely course\n\n(a) DI\n(b) SIADH\n(c) Addisonian Crisis\n(d) Cerebral salt wasting DISEASE",
"role": "user"
},
{
"content": "... |
ae3773b2-c801-4738-961c-d4704c74de03 | Distribution of blood flow is mainly regulated by the
A) Venules
B) Arteries
C) Capillaries
D) Arterioles | Arteries | Arterioles | Capillaries | Venules | 1 | single | Arterioles regulate the distribution of blood flow by altering their diameter to increase or decrease the peripheral resistance as required. | Physiology | null | D) Arterioles | A) Venules
B) Arteries
C) Capillaries
D) Arterioles | D) | [
"A)",
"B)",
"C)"
] | [
"A) Venules",
"B) Arteries",
"C) Capillaries"
] | A) Venules | Choose the correct answer from the options below. | [
{
"content": "Distribution of blood flow is mainly regulated by the\n\nA) Venules\nB) Arteries\nC) Capillaries\nD) Arterioles",
"role": "user"
},
{
"content": "D) Arterioles",
"role": "assistant"
}
] |
5afd52af-513a-4600-9dae-8c6bda73826b | Glutamine synthetase is a
I. Isomerase
II. Lyase
III. Transferase
IV. Ligase | Isomerase | Ligase | Lyase | Transferase | 1 | single | Ligases are enzymes that link two substrate together,usually with the simultaneous hydrolysis of ATP. Glutamine synthetase catalyses the amidation of glutamic acid to glutamine.Ref: DM Vasudevan - Textbook of Biochemistry, 7th edition, page no: 49 and 224 | Biochemistry | Metabolism of protein and amino acid | IV. Ligase | I. Isomerase
II. Lyase
III. Transferase
IV. Ligase | IV. | [
"I.",
"II.",
"III."
] | [
"I. Isomerase",
"II. Lyase",
"III. Transferase"
] | II. Lyase | Choose the correct answer from the options below. | [
{
"content": "Glutamine synthetase is a\n\nI. Isomerase\nII. Lyase\nIII. Transferase\nIV. Ligase",
"role": "user"
},
{
"content": "IV. Ligase",
"role": "assistant"
}
] |
f30f742d-a08c-476b-91ba-cd8f341d473c | The operating temperature in an ethylene oxide sterilization during warm cycle is
(a) 68-88 degree c
(b) 20-35 degree c
(c) 92-110 degree c
(d) 49-63 degree c | 20-35 degree c | 49-63 degree c | 68-88 degree c | 92-110 degree c | 1 | single | null | Microbiology | null | (d) 49-63 degree c | (a) 68-88 degree c
(b) 20-35 degree c
(c) 92-110 degree c
(d) 49-63 degree c | (d) | [
"(a)",
"(b)",
"(c)"
] | [
"(a) 68-88 degree c",
"(b) 20-35 degree c",
"(c) 92-110 degree c"
] | (a) 68-88 degree c | Choose the correct answer from the options below. | [
{
"content": "The operating temperature in an ethylene oxide sterilization during warm cycle is\n\n(a) 68-88 degree c\n(b) 20-35 degree c\n(c) 92-110 degree c\n(d) 49-63 degree c",
"role": "user"
},
{
"content": "(d) 49-63 degree c",
"role": "assistant"
}
] |
334866ff-361f-45ed-a875-888c167f1e28 | Coris disease is due to defect in
a. Hepatic phosphorylase
b. Branching enzyme
c. Myophosphorylase
d. Debranching enzyme | Branching enzyme | Debranching enzyme | Myophosphorylase | Hepatic phosphorylase | 1 | single | It is type III glycogen storage disease. to deficiency of the debranching enzyme. Clinical features: highly branched dextrin accumulate, fasting hypoglycemia, hepatomegaly.Ref: DM Vasudevan, 7th edition, page no: 125 | Biochemistry | Metabolism of carbohydrate | d. Debranching enzyme | a. Hepatic phosphorylase
b. Branching enzyme
c. Myophosphorylase
d. Debranching enzyme | d. | [
"a.",
"b.",
"c."
] | [
"a. Hepatic phosphorylase",
"b. Branching enzyme",
"c. Myophosphorylase"
] | c. Myophosphorylase | Choose the correct answer from the options below. | [
{
"content": "Coris disease is due to defect in\n\na. Hepatic phosphorylase\nb. Branching enzyme\nc. Myophosphorylase\nd. Debranching enzyme",
"role": "user"
},
{
"content": "d. Debranching enzyme",
"role": "assistant"
}
] |
bfb67460-7508-4a50-9c6e-a3423bbee867 | What is the net gain of ATPs when Palmitic acid undergoes complete oxidation?
A. 106 ATPs
B. 100 ATPs
C. 28 ATPs
D. 128 ATPs | 106 ATPs | 100 ATPs | 28 ATPs | 128 ATPs | 0 | single | Refer the byte "Beta Oxidation" | Biochemistry | null | A. 106 ATPs | A. 106 ATPs
B. 100 ATPs
C. 28 ATPs
D. 128 ATPs | A. | [
"B.",
"C.",
"D."
] | [
"B. 100 ATPs",
"C. 28 ATPs",
"D. 128 ATPs"
] | D. 128 ATPs | Choose the correct answer from the options below. | [
{
"content": "What is the net gain of ATPs when Palmitic acid undergoes complete oxidation?\n\nA. 106 ATPs\nB. 100 ATPs\nC. 28 ATPs\nD. 128 ATPs",
"role": "user"
},
{
"content": "A. 106 ATPs",
"role": "assistant"
}
] |
7dddda8d-03bd-473e-99e3-76e49ba99fdb | 28 yr old man presented with headache. CT head shows a low attenuation mass in left temporoparietal region which has similar density to CSF and shows no enhancement following contrast administration. Diffusion weighted MRI shows high signal. Which of the following is most probable diagnosis?
[a] Epidermoid cyst
[b] Mu... | Migraine | Arachnoid cyst | Epidermoid cyst | Multiple sclerosis | 2 | single | When there is Diffusion Restriction, DW-MRI gives a bright signal and has low apparent Diffusion Coefficient(ADC value). Lesions showing Diffusion Restriction Infarct(Acute Infarct)- IOC Abscess Medulloblastoma & Other Cellularity Tumours Epidermoid Cyst There is free diffusion of water within arachnoid cysts therefore... | Radiology | Neuroradiology | [a] Epidermoid cyst | [a] Epidermoid cyst
[b] Multiple sclerosis
[c] Arachnoid cyst
[d] Migraine | [a] | [
"[b]",
"[c]",
"[d]"
] | [
"[b] Multiple sclerosis",
"[c] Arachnoid cyst",
"[d] Migraine"
] | [d] Migraine | Choose the correct answer from the options below. | [
{
"content": "28 yr old man presented with headache. CT head shows a low attenuation mass in left temporoparietal region which has similar density to CSF and shows no enhancement following contrast administration. Diffusion weighted MRI shows high signal. Which of the following is most probable diagnosis?\n\n[a... |
0fc2b368-f84c-42bd-89d0-d3c3c559c2e8 | Chronic non- spherocytic hemolytic anemia comes under which class of G6PD deficiency?
A) Class I
B) Class IV
C) Class II
D) Class III | Class I | Class II | Class III | Class IV | 0 | single | Class I - severely G6PD deficient associated with chronic non - spherocytic hemolytic anemia. | Medicine | null | A) Class I | A) Class I
B) Class IV
C) Class II
D) Class III | A) | [
"B)",
"C)",
"D)"
] | [
"B) Class IV",
"C) Class II",
"D) Class III"
] | B) Class IV | Choose the correct answer from the options below. | [
{
"content": "Chronic non- spherocytic hemolytic anemia comes under which class of G6PD deficiency?\n\nA) Class I\nB) Class IV\nC) Class II\nD) Class III",
"role": "user"
},
{
"content": "A) Class I",
"role": "assistant"
}
] |
f8321123-dae8-4950-a5ac-e93d4e57e14c | Frequency of theta wave -
I. 12-16 Hz
II. 4-8 Hz
III. 2-4 Hz
IV. 8-12 Hz | 2-4 Hz | 4-8 Hz | 8-12 Hz | 12-16 Hz | 1 | single | Ans. is 'b' i.e., 4-8 Hz Beta (b) waveAlpha (a) waveTheta waveDelta waveRecorded from/seen ino From parietal & frontal region during specific activation of these parts of braino Seen in drowsiness & children and patients awake, at rest with eyes open.o Recorded from parieto occipital regiono Seen in almost all normal a... | Physiology | Sleep Physiology | II. 4-8 Hz | I. 12-16 Hz
II. 4-8 Hz
III. 2-4 Hz
IV. 8-12 Hz | II. | [
"I.",
"III.",
"IV."
] | [
"I. 12-16 Hz",
"III. 2-4 Hz",
"IV. 8-12 Hz"
] | III. 2-4 Hz | Choose the correct answer from the options below. | [
{
"content": "Frequency of theta wave -\n\nI. 12-16 Hz\nII. 4-8 Hz\nIII. 2-4 Hz\nIV. 8-12 Hz",
"role": "user"
},
{
"content": "II. 4-8 Hz",
"role": "assistant"
}
] |
0bbf3867-4d73-4e1f-a38d-57efd7ecf019 | Presynaptic facilitation is caused by
i. Prolonged opening of sodium channels
ii. Prolonged closure of potassium channels
iii. Prolonged opening of chloride channels
iv. Prolonged opening of calcium channels | Prolonged opening of calcium channels | Prolonged opening of chloride channels | Prolonged opening of sodium channels | Prolonged closure of potassium channels | 0 | single | Presynaptic facilitation: when a third neuron facilitates the presynaptic neuron at it ternimal end is called presynaptic facilitation It causes increased neurotransmitters by opening ca+ channals Ref:Guyton and Hall textbook of medical physiology 12th edition,page number:675,676,677 | Physiology | General physiology | iv. Prolonged opening of calcium channels | i. Prolonged opening of sodium channels
ii. Prolonged closure of potassium channels
iii. Prolonged opening of chloride channels
iv. Prolonged opening of calcium channels | iv. | [
"i.",
"ii.",
"iii."
] | [
"i. Prolonged opening of sodium channels",
"ii. Prolonged closure of potassium channels",
"iii. Prolonged opening of chloride channels"
] | iii. Prolonged opening of chloride channels | Choose the correct answer from the options below. | [
{
"content": "Presynaptic facilitation is caused by\n\ni. Prolonged opening of sodium channels\nii. Prolonged closure of potassium channels\niii. Prolonged opening of chloride channels\niv. Prolonged opening of calcium channels",
"role": "user"
},
{
"content": "iv. Prolonged opening of calcium chann... |
ba3c399d-9f73-4bf0-a0a0-6f7507b7a3e2 | Oxygen dissociation curve shifts to right in the following condition:
I. Hyperkalemia
II. Severe anemia
III. Metabolic alkalosis
IV. Hypokalemia | Hyperkalemia | Hypokalemia | Metabolic alkalosis | Severe anemia | 3 | single | Most forms of anemia do not affect the oxyhemoglobin dissociation curve if the association of oxygen and hemoglobin is expressed as percent saturation. It is the amount of hemoglobin that decreases, not the percent saturation or even the aerial PO2. The aerial content of oxygen, however, in milliliters of oxygen per 10... | Physiology | null | II. Severe anemia | I. Hyperkalemia
II. Severe anemia
III. Metabolic alkalosis
IV. Hypokalemia | II. | [
"I.",
"III.",
"IV."
] | [
"I. Hyperkalemia",
"III. Metabolic alkalosis",
"IV. Hypokalemia"
] | IV. Hypokalemia | Choose the correct answer from the options below. | [
{
"content": "Oxygen dissociation curve shifts to right in the following condition:\n\nI. Hyperkalemia\nII. Severe anemia\nIII. Metabolic alkalosis\nIV. Hypokalemia",
"role": "user"
},
{
"content": "II. Severe anemia",
"role": "assistant"
}
] |
e84da0a4-bd04-4ffb-8058-c007300e2d4a | True statement regarding poal venous system is?
(a) Valves are present in the intrahepatic system
(b) There are about 10-12 valves along the entire course
(c) Whole system is valve less
(d) Valves are present at the junction of superior mesenteric aery and splenic aery | Valves are present at the junction of superior mesenteric aery and splenic aery | Whole system is valve less | Valves are present in the intrahepatic system | There are about 10-12 valves along the entire course | 1 | multi | Whole system is valve less REF: BDC 4th edition vol II p. 268-71, Gray's Anatomy 39th edition p. 1218 In adults, the poal vein and its tributaries have no valves. In fetal life and for a sho postnatal period valves are d emonstrable in its tributaries, but they usually atrophy. Rarely some persist in an atrophic form i... | Anatomy | null | (c) Whole system is valve less | (a) Valves are present in the intrahepatic system
(b) There are about 10-12 valves along the entire course
(c) Whole system is valve less
(d) Valves are present at the junction of superior mesenteric aery and splenic aery | (c) | [
"(a)",
"(b)",
"(d)"
] | [
"(a) Valves are present in the intrahepatic system",
"(b) There are about 10-12 valves along the entire course",
"(d) Valves are present at the junction of superior mesenteric aery and splenic aery"
] | (d) Valves are present at the junction of superior mesenteric aery and splenic aery | Choose the correct answer from the options below. | [
{
"content": "True statement regarding poal venous system is?\n\n(a) Valves are present in the intrahepatic system\n(b) There are about 10-12 valves along the entire course\n(c) Whole system is valve less\n(d) Valves are present at the junction of superior mesenteric aery and splenic aery",
"role": "user"
... |
2361e501-1a3a-47e1-b792-697af05966c9 | Ventricle of Morgagni is situated in:
1. Larynx between true and false cords
2. Nasopharynx representing epithelial diverticulum which forms anterior lobe of pituitary
3. Nose above the vestibule and anterior to middle turbinate
4. Between base of skull and upper border of superior constrictor | Larynx between true and false cords | Between base of skull and upper border of superior constrictor | Nasopharynx representing epithelial diverticulum which forms anterior lobe of pituitary | Nose above the vestibule and anterior to middle turbinate | 0 | multi | Ventricle of Morgagni, commonly called the ventricle of larynx, is situated between the false and true vocal cords.The defect between base of skull and upper border of superior constrictor which is covered by buccopharyngeal fascia and pierced by eustachian tube is called sinus of Morgagni.The diverticulum of nasophary... | ENT | Larynx | 1. Larynx between true and false cords | 1. Larynx between true and false cords
2. Nasopharynx representing epithelial diverticulum which forms anterior lobe of pituitary
3. Nose above the vestibule and anterior to middle turbinate
4. Between base of skull and upper border of superior constrictor | 1. | [
"2.",
"3.",
"4."
] | [
"2. Nasopharynx representing epithelial diverticulum which forms anterior lobe of pituitary",
"3. Nose above the vestibule and anterior to middle turbinate",
"4. Between base of skull and upper border of superior constrictor"
] | 4. Between base of skull and upper border of superior constrictor | Choose the correct answer from the options below. | [
{
"content": "Ventricle of Morgagni is situated in:\n\n1. Larynx between true and false cords\n2. Nasopharynx representing epithelial diverticulum which forms anterior lobe of pituitary\n3. Nose above the vestibule and anterior to middle turbinate\n4. Between base of skull and upper border of superior constrict... |
6cb1efbc-131c-420e-b331-94fbff68b864 | Mechanism of digitalis in atrial fibrillation:
(a) Na+ K+ ATP ase pump inhibition
(b) Bradycardia
(c) Increase refractoriness of AV node
(d) Decrease in contractility | Decrease in contractility | Na+ K+ ATP ase pump inhibition | Increase refractoriness of AV node | Bradycardia | 2 | single | Ans. C. Increase refractoriness of AV nodeDigoxin is inotropic agent used in heart failure. It has positive inotropic effect and negative chronotropic effect. Inotropic effect is due to blockade of Na+K+ATPase pump. Chronotropic effect is due to vagomimetic effect which increase the refractoriness of AV node. This mech... | Pharmacology | C.V.S | (c) Increase refractoriness of AV node | (a) Na+ K+ ATP ase pump inhibition
(b) Bradycardia
(c) Increase refractoriness of AV node
(d) Decrease in contractility | (c) | [
"(a)",
"(b)",
"(d)"
] | [
"(a) Na+ K+ ATP ase pump inhibition",
"(b) Bradycardia",
"(d) Decrease in contractility"
] | (d) Decrease in contractility | Choose the correct answer from the options below. | [
{
"content": "Mechanism of digitalis in atrial fibrillation:\n\n(a) Na+ K+ ATP ase pump inhibition\n(b) Bradycardia\n(c) Increase refractoriness of AV node\n(d) Decrease in contractility",
"role": "user"
},
{
"content": "(c) Increase refractoriness of AV node",
"role": "assistant"
}
] |
f7cffb4d-bfd3-4eb6-89bf-8f7c691005c0 | Pattern theory of pain control was given by
I. Descartes
II. Goldschneider
III. Melzack
IV. Von frey | Von frey | Melzack | Goldschneider | Descartes | 2 | single | null | Surgery | null | II. Goldschneider | I. Descartes
II. Goldschneider
III. Melzack
IV. Von frey | II. | [
"I.",
"III.",
"IV."
] | [
"I. Descartes",
"III. Melzack",
"IV. Von frey"
] | IV. Von frey | Choose the correct answer from the options below. | [
{
"content": "Pattern theory of pain control was given by\n\nI. Descartes\nII. Goldschneider\nIII. Melzack\nIV. Von frey",
"role": "user"
},
{
"content": "II. Goldschneider",
"role": "assistant"
}
] |
f2fff366-7a06-4976-85e7-908450c55a97 | O2 is given during anaesthesia to prevent –
(A) Hypercapnia
(B) Pain
(C) Hypoxia
(D) Hypotension | Pain | Hypoxia | Hypercapnia | Hypotension | 1 | single | null | Anaesthesia | null | (C) Hypoxia | (A) Hypercapnia
(B) Pain
(C) Hypoxia
(D) Hypotension | (C) | [
"(A)",
"(B)",
"(D)"
] | [
"(A) Hypercapnia",
"(B) Pain",
"(D) Hypotension"
] | (B) Pain | Choose the correct answer from the options below. | [
{
"content": "O2 is given during anaesthesia to prevent –\n\n(A) Hypercapnia\n(B) Pain\n(C) Hypoxia\n(D) Hypotension",
"role": "user"
},
{
"content": "(C) Hypoxia",
"role": "assistant"
}
] |
5e7cf7b1-d84e-4b6d-9e10-99829c269f27 | Zidovudine causes :
(A) Ototoxicity
(B) Neutropenia
(C) Nephrotoxicity
(D) Neurotoxicity | Neurotoxicity | Nephrotoxicity | Neutropenia | Ototoxicity | 2 | single | null | Pharmacology | null | (B) Neutropenia | (A) Ototoxicity
(B) Neutropenia
(C) Nephrotoxicity
(D) Neurotoxicity | (B) | [
"(A)",
"(C)",
"(D)"
] | [
"(A) Ototoxicity",
"(C) Nephrotoxicity",
"(D) Neurotoxicity"
] | (A) Ototoxicity | Choose the correct answer from the options below. | [
{
"content": "Zidovudine causes :\n\n(A) Ototoxicity\n(B) Neutropenia\n(C) Nephrotoxicity\n(D) Neurotoxicity",
"role": "user"
},
{
"content": "(B) Neutropenia",
"role": "assistant"
}
] |
ada4c094-8189-4e6e-8b96-be5e3486f702 | In a highly selective vagotomy, the vagal supply is severed to -
i. Pylorus
ii. Proximal two-thirds of stomach
iii. Antrum
iv. Whole of stomach | Antrum | Proximal two-thirds of stomach | Pylorus | Whole of stomach | 1 | single | null | Surgery | null | ii. Proximal two-thirds of stomach | i. Pylorus
ii. Proximal two-thirds of stomach
iii. Antrum
iv. Whole of stomach | ii. | [
"i.",
"iii.",
"iv."
] | [
"i. Pylorus",
"iii. Antrum",
"iv. Whole of stomach"
] | iv. Whole of stomach | Choose the correct answer from the options below. | [
{
"content": "In a highly selective vagotomy, the vagal supply is severed to -\n\ni. Pylorus\nii. Proximal two-thirds of stomach\niii. Antrum\niv. Whole of stomach",
"role": "user"
},
{
"content": "ii. Proximal two-thirds of stomach",
"role": "assistant"
}
] |
d93a21c2-4c4f-44cc-ae73-4710f7a45f04 | Cyst with scolex and hooks
A) Schistosoma
B) T solium
C) Echinococus
D) H. nana | T solium | H. nana | Echinococus | Schistosoma | 0 | single | (A) T. solium | Microbiology | Misc. | B) T solium | A) Schistosoma
B) T solium
C) Echinococus
D) H. nana | B) | [
"A)",
"C)",
"D)"
] | [
"A) Schistosoma",
"C) Echinococus",
"D) H. nana"
] | A) Schistosoma | Choose the correct answer from the options below. | [
{
"content": "Cyst with scolex and hooks\n\nA) Schistosoma\nB) T solium\nC) Echinococus\nD) H. nana",
"role": "user"
},
{
"content": "B) T solium",
"role": "assistant"
}
] |
05d57ef0-18b1-4998-975c-34fc3e780fd3 | Carbamoyl phosphate synthase I is used in -
(1) Purine synthesis
(2) Uronic acid pathway
(3) Urea cycle
(4) Pyrimidine synthesis | Purine synthesis | Pyrimidine synthesis | Urea cycle | Uronic acid pathway | 2 | single | Ans. is 'c' i.e., Urea cycle o Carbamyl phosphate synthase I - Urea cycleo Carbamyl phosphate synthase II - Pyrimidine synthesisUrea cvcleo Ammonia is ultimately disposed of by formation of urea by "Kreb's Henseleit urea cycle" in the liverr. Urea cycle takes place both in mitochondria and cytosol. First two reactions ... | Biochemistry | Metabolism of Purines and Pyrimidines | (3) Urea cycle | (1) Purine synthesis
(2) Uronic acid pathway
(3) Urea cycle
(4) Pyrimidine synthesis | (3) | [
"(1)",
"(2)",
"(4)"
] | [
"(1) Purine synthesis",
"(2) Uronic acid pathway",
"(4) Pyrimidine synthesis"
] | (1) Purine synthesis | Choose the correct answer from the options below. | [
{
"content": "Carbamoyl phosphate synthase I is used in -\n\n(1) Purine synthesis\n(2) Uronic acid pathway\n(3) Urea cycle\n(4) Pyrimidine synthesis",
"role": "user"
},
{
"content": "(3) Urea cycle",
"role": "assistant"
}
] |
33e70f79-a1f8-4d79-8766-6f34147cf44c | Pterygium of nail is seen in
[1] Alopecia areata
[2] Lichen planus
[3] Tinea unguium
[4] Psoriasis | Lichen planus | Psoriasis | Tinea unguium | Alopecia areata | 0 | single | Pterygium of nail Pterygium unguis results from a scarring involving the nail fold extending onto the matrix. "dorsal pterygium" where proximal nail fold fuses to matrix and later to nail bed "ventral pterygium" where a distal extension of the hyponychium attaches to the undersurface of the nail plate thereby obliterat... | Dental | Autoimmune skin disorders | [2] Lichen planus | [1] Alopecia areata
[2] Lichen planus
[3] Tinea unguium
[4] Psoriasis | [2] | [
"[1]",
"[3]",
"[4]"
] | [
"[1] Alopecia areata",
"[3] Tinea unguium",
"[4] Psoriasis"
] | [4] Psoriasis | Choose the correct answer from the options below. | [
{
"content": "Pterygium of nail is seen in\n\n[1] Alopecia areata\n[2] Lichen planus\n[3] Tinea unguium\n[4] Psoriasis",
"role": "user"
},
{
"content": "[2] Lichen planus",
"role": "assistant"
}
] |
2ed98e39-4dc4-441d-9f38-97d9f518744b | Which is the watershed area between SMA and IMA that commonly undergoes ischemia?
(1) Rectosigmoid Jn.
(2) Ileocolic Jn.
(3) Hepatic flexure
(4) Splenic flexure | Hepatic flexure | Splenic flexure | Rectosigmoid Jn. | Ileocolic Jn. | 1 | single | Anatomic factors predisposing to colonic ischemia include the narrow caliber of the IMA and occasional vascular variations that lack significant collaterals between the SMA and IMA. Predisposing physiologic factors include the low perfusion pressure at the splenic flexure, a watershed area, a decrease in perfusion asso... | Anatomy | null | (4) Splenic flexure | (1) Rectosigmoid Jn.
(2) Ileocolic Jn.
(3) Hepatic flexure
(4) Splenic flexure | (4) | [
"(1)",
"(2)",
"(3)"
] | [
"(1) Rectosigmoid Jn.",
"(2) Ileocolic Jn.",
"(3) Hepatic flexure"
] | (3) Hepatic flexure | Choose the correct answer from the options below. | [
{
"content": "Which is the watershed area between SMA and IMA that commonly undergoes ischemia?\n\n(1) Rectosigmoid Jn.\n(2) Ileocolic Jn.\n(3) Hepatic flexure\n(4) Splenic flexure",
"role": "user"
},
{
"content": "(4) Splenic flexure",
"role": "assistant"
}
] |
99d6e6b8-a83a-4afe-9e58-afa39aba6422 | Symptomatic Neonatal CNS involvement is most commonly seen in which group of congenital intrauterine infections?
a) Rubella and Toxoplasmosis
b) CMV and Syphillis
c) Rubella and HSV
d) CMV and Toxoplasmosis | CMV and Toxoplasmosis | Rubella and Toxoplasmosis | Rubella and HSV | CMV and Syphillis | 2 | single | CNS involvement is a common feature of "TORCH infection". The newborn is asymptomatic at bih. The baby develops symptoms characteristic of the infection in the late neonatal period. Symptomatic CNS manifestations are most common with herpes and rubella infections. Ref: O P Ghai 6th Edition, Page 165; Vope's Neurology o... | Pediatrics | null | c) Rubella and HSV | a) Rubella and Toxoplasmosis
b) CMV and Syphillis
c) Rubella and HSV
d) CMV and Toxoplasmosis | c) | [
"a)",
"b)",
"d)"
] | [
"a) Rubella and Toxoplasmosis",
"b) CMV and Syphillis",
"d) CMV and Toxoplasmosis"
] | d) CMV and Toxoplasmosis | Choose the correct answer from the options below. | [
{
"content": "Symptomatic Neonatal CNS involvement is most commonly seen in which group of congenital intrauterine infections?\n\na) Rubella and Toxoplasmosis\nb) CMV and Syphillis\nc) Rubella and HSV\nd) CMV and Toxoplasmosis",
"role": "user"
},
{
"content": "c) Rubella and HSV",
"role": "assis... |
a244d307-e501-4aaf-a5c5-452ee4d1b0e6 | Hepatorenal syndrome feature are -
(1) Normal renal histology
(2) Urine sodium < 10 mEq/L
(3) Renal function abnormal even after liver become normal
(4) Proteinuria < 500 mg/day | Urine sodium < 10 mEq/L | Normal renal histology | Renal function abnormal even after liver become normal | Proteinuria < 500 mg/day | 0 | single | Urine sodium hepatorenal syndrome Patients with low urine sodium excretion (< 10mEq/L) are at a greater risk of HRS. Urine sodium and creatinine levels are also used to calculate the fractional excretion of sodium, which is helpful in differentiating HRS and prerenal azotemia from intrinsic renal disease Ref Harrison20... | Medicine | Kidney | (2) Urine sodium < 10 mEq/L | (1) Normal renal histology
(2) Urine sodium < 10 mEq/L
(3) Renal function abnormal even after liver become normal
(4) Proteinuria < 500 mg/day | (2) | [
"(1)",
"(3)",
"(4)"
] | [
"(1) Normal renal histology",
"(3) Renal function abnormal even after liver become normal",
"(4) Proteinuria < 500 mg/day"
] | (1) Normal renal histology | Choose the correct answer from the options below. | [
{
"content": "Hepatorenal syndrome feature are -\n\n(1) Normal renal histology\n(2) Urine sodium < 10 mEq/L\n(3) Renal function abnormal even after liver become normal\n(4) Proteinuria < 500 mg/day",
"role": "user"
},
{
"content": "(2) Urine sodium < 10 mEq/L",
"role": "assistant"
}
] |
cb50cded-1a26-469f-9df2-87be1173706c | Which muscle of larynx is not supplied by recurrent laryngeal nerve -
(a) Interarytenoid
(b) Thyroarytenoid
(c) Vocalis
(d) Cricothyroid | Vocalis | Thyroarytenoid | Cricothyroid | Interarytenoid | 2 | single | Ans. is 'c' i.e., Cricothyroid o All intrinsic muscles are supplied by the reccurrent laryngeal nerve except cricothyroid which is supplied by the external laryngeal nerve.Nerve supply of larynxo The main cranial nerve innervating the larynx is the vagus nerve via its branches; superior laryngeal nerve (SLN) and recurr... | ENT | Larynx | (d) Cricothyroid | (a) Interarytenoid
(b) Thyroarytenoid
(c) Vocalis
(d) Cricothyroid | (d) | [
"(a)",
"(b)",
"(c)"
] | [
"(a) Interarytenoid",
"(b) Thyroarytenoid",
"(c) Vocalis"
] | (b) Thyroarytenoid | Choose the correct answer from the options below. | [
{
"content": "Which muscle of larynx is not supplied by recurrent laryngeal nerve -\n\n(a) Interarytenoid\n(b) Thyroarytenoid\n(c) Vocalis\n(d) Cricothyroid",
"role": "user"
},
{
"content": "(d) Cricothyroid",
"role": "assistant"
}
] |
5c5e80a9-c8d8-432d-8505-e263144c01d2 | Flexner-Wintersteiner rosettes in microscopy is seen in: September 2009
(A) Neuroblastoma
(B) Retinitis pigmentosa
(C) Retinoblastoma
(D) Trauma | Retinitis pigmentosa | Trauma | Retinoblastoma | Neuroblastoma | 2 | single | Ans. C: Retinoblastoma Leukocoria (white pupillary reflex or cat's eye reflex) is the most common presenting sign of retinoblastoma, accounting for about 56.1% of cases. Strabismus, which occurs as a result of visual loss, is the second most common mode of presentation. Thus, funduscopic examination through a well-dila... | Ophthalmology | null | (C) Retinoblastoma | (A) Neuroblastoma
(B) Retinitis pigmentosa
(C) Retinoblastoma
(D) Trauma | (C) | [
"(A)",
"(B)",
"(D)"
] | [
"(A) Neuroblastoma",
"(B) Retinitis pigmentosa",
"(D) Trauma"
] | (B) Retinitis pigmentosa | Choose the correct answer from the options below. | [
{
"content": "Flexner-Wintersteiner rosettes in microscopy is seen in: September 2009\n\n(A) Neuroblastoma\n(B) Retinitis pigmentosa\n(C) Retinoblastoma\n(D) Trauma",
"role": "user"
},
{
"content": "(C) Retinoblastoma",
"role": "assistant"
}
] |
2c2141a4-50a0-4d3e-b995-b142d5decd23 | Spontaneous rupture of the liver occurs in ?
I. Spherocytosis
II. Poal hypeension
III. Hepatoma
IV. Secondary deposits | Hepatoma | Poal hypeension | Spherocytosis | Secondary deposits | 0 | single | Ans. is 'a' i.e., Hepatoma Spontaneous rupture of the liver can be seen in both beningn and malignant tumors of the liver. Hepatoma or HCC is the most common cause. | Surgery | null | III. Hepatoma | I. Spherocytosis
II. Poal hypeension
III. Hepatoma
IV. Secondary deposits | III. | [
"I.",
"II.",
"IV."
] | [
"I. Spherocytosis",
"II. Poal hypeension",
"IV. Secondary deposits"
] | II. Poal hypeension | Choose the correct answer from the options below. | [
{
"content": "Spontaneous rupture of the liver occurs in ?\n\nI. Spherocytosis\nII. Poal hypeension\nIII. Hepatoma\nIV. Secondary deposits",
"role": "user"
},
{
"content": "III. Hepatoma",
"role": "assistant"
}
] |
d8b6713d-0345-4407-a979-13fe99249479 | Cervical cerclage is offered to pregnant women with prior history of preterm bih if cervical length is less than
A. 40mm
B. 30mm
C. 35mm
D. 25mm | 25mm | 30mm | 35mm | 40mm | 0 | single | Cervical length screening is now recommended for women with prior history of preterm bih. Between 16 and 24weeks gestation sonographic cervical measurement is completed every 2weeks. If initial or subsequent cervical length is 25 to 29mm, then a weekly interval is considered. If the cervical measurement is <25mm, cercl... | Gynaecology & Obstetrics | All India exam | D. 25mm | A. 40mm
B. 30mm
C. 35mm
D. 25mm | D. | [
"A.",
"B.",
"C."
] | [
"A. 40mm",
"B. 30mm",
"C. 35mm"
] | A. 40mm | Choose the correct answer from the options below. | [
{
"content": "Cervical cerclage is offered to pregnant women with prior history of preterm bih if cervical length is less than\n\nA. 40mm\nB. 30mm\nC. 35mm\nD. 25mm",
"role": "user"
},
{
"content": "D. 25mm",
"role": "assistant"
}
] |
9de00ad5-ce32-4eff-a4d0-43b3e360cec2 | The following drug is indicated in the treatment of pityriasis versicolar :
[a] Metronidazole
[b] Ketoconazole
[c] Griseofulvin
[d] Chloroquine | Ketoconazole | Metronidazole | Griseofulvin | Chloroquine | 0 | single | A i.e. Ketoconazole - Pityriasis versicolor is superficial mycosis caused by mycelial phase of yeast Malassezia (furfur, globosa, sympodialis)Q. It presents with multiple, small, hypopigmented (usually or pink-salmon or hyperpigmented) scaly macules that develop insidiously over the trunk, chest, back and shoulders in ... | Skin | null | [b] Ketoconazole | [a] Metronidazole
[b] Ketoconazole
[c] Griseofulvin
[d] Chloroquine | [b] | [
"[a]",
"[c]",
"[d]"
] | [
"[a] Metronidazole",
"[c] Griseofulvin",
"[d] Chloroquine"
] | [c] Griseofulvin | Choose the correct answer from the options below. | [
{
"content": "The following drug is indicated in the treatment of pityriasis versicolar :\n\n[a] Metronidazole\n[b] Ketoconazole\n[c] Griseofulvin\n[d] Chloroquine",
"role": "user"
},
{
"content": "[b] Ketoconazole",
"role": "assistant"
}
] |
7a6d301e-7ff1-49ad-b34e-7200ccdbeca1 | True statement regarding use of adrenaline in anaphylactic shock is?
(1) 1:10,000 concentration is commonly used
(2) 0.5 mg dose is administered by s.c.route
(3) Same concentration can be given for s.c.as well as i.v.route
(4) It is repeated after every 4-6 hours | 0.5 mg dose is administered by s.c.route | 1:10,000 concentration is commonly used | It is repeated after every 4-6 hours | Same concentration can be given for s.c.as well as i.v.route | 0 | multi | Ans. is 'a' i.e., 0.5 mg dose is administered by s.c.route Adrenaline 0.5 ml of 1:1000 solution (i.e., 0.5 mg) by s.c. or i.m. route is the DOC for anaphylactic shock. If not responding, it can be repeated after 5 minutes. In desperate circumstances i.v. route can be used but it must be diluted 10 times (i.e., 1:10000 ... | Pharmacology | null | (2) 0.5 mg dose is administered by s.c.route | (1) 1:10,000 concentration is commonly used
(2) 0.5 mg dose is administered by s.c.route
(3) Same concentration can be given for s.c.as well as i.v.route
(4) It is repeated after every 4-6 hours | (2) | [
"(1)",
"(3)",
"(4)"
] | [
"(1) 1:10,000 concentration is commonly used",
"(3) Same concentration can be given for s.c.as well as i.v.route",
"(4) It is repeated after every 4-6 hours"
] | (3) Same concentration can be given for s.c.as well as i.v.route | Choose the correct answer from the options below. | [
{
"content": "True statement regarding use of adrenaline in anaphylactic shock is?\n\n(1) 1:10,000 concentration is commonly used\n(2) 0.5 mg dose is administered by s.c.route\n(3) Same concentration can be given for s.c.as well as i.v.route\n(4) It is repeated after every 4-6 hours",
"role": "user"
},
... |
3a65e4dc-8dcb-4bdb-b3ef-84a7af90ec94 | Which of the following are signs of tentorial herniation?
1) Sixth nerve palsy
2) All of the above
3) Sunset sign
4) Decerebrate rigidity | Sunset sign | Sixth nerve palsy | Decerebrate rigidity | All of the above | 3 | multi | Ans. D. All of the aboveIf the intracranial pressure exceeds the compensatory mechanisms, herniation with secondary compression and infarction of brain tissue occurs. Common signs of tentorial herniation include sunset sign, sixth nerve palsy, coma, tonic fits, decebrate rigidity, hypertension, bradycardia, hemiplegia,... | Pediatrics | Central Nervous System | 2) All of the above | 1) Sixth nerve palsy
2) All of the above
3) Sunset sign
4) Decerebrate rigidity | 2) | [
"1)",
"3)",
"4)"
] | [
"1) Sixth nerve palsy",
"3) Sunset sign",
"4) Decerebrate rigidity"
] | 3) Sunset sign | Choose the correct answer from the options below. | [
{
"content": "Which of the following are signs of tentorial herniation?\n\n1) Sixth nerve palsy\n2) All of the above\n3) Sunset sign\n4) Decerebrate rigidity",
"role": "user"
},
{
"content": "2) All of the above",
"role": "assistant"
}
] |
ee7543bb-224c-4dbb-b33d-4ed2bc53110e | All of the following are true except:
A. Myeloperoxidase action is mainly due to OCI-
B. Chediak-Higashi syndrome is due to defective phagolysosome formation
C. NADPH oxidase acts via superoxide ions
D. In Brutons agammaglobulinemia opsonisation is not affected | NADPH oxidase acts via superoxide ions | Chediak-Higashi syndrome is due to defective phagolysosome formation | In Brutons agammaglobulinemia opsonisation is not affected | Myeloperoxidase action is mainly due to OCI- | 2 | multi | c. In Brutons agammaglobulinemia opsonization is not affected(Ref: Nelson's 20/e p 1012-1016, Ghai8/ep 186)IgM is important for opsonization, so in Brutons agammaglobulinemia opsonisation is affected. | Pediatrics | New Born Infants | D. In Brutons agammaglobulinemia opsonisation is not affected | A. Myeloperoxidase action is mainly due to OCI-
B. Chediak-Higashi syndrome is due to defective phagolysosome formation
C. NADPH oxidase acts via superoxide ions
D. In Brutons agammaglobulinemia opsonisation is not affected | D. | [
"A.",
"B.",
"C."
] | [
"A. Myeloperoxidase action is mainly due to OCI-",
"B. Chediak-Higashi syndrome is due to defective phagolysosome formation",
"C. NADPH oxidase acts via superoxide ions"
] | B. Chediak-Higashi syndrome is due to defective phagolysosome formation | Choose the correct answer from the options below. | [
{
"content": "All of the following are true except:\n\nA. Myeloperoxidase action is mainly due to OCI-\nB. Chediak-Higashi syndrome is due to defective phagolysosome formation\nC. NADPH oxidase acts via superoxide ions\nD. In Brutons agammaglobulinemia opsonisation is not affected",
"role": "user"
},
{
... |
694d5229-d260-41b3-a4e1-232608661025 | Dawn phenomenon refers to-
[a] Hypoglycemia followed by hyperglycemia
[b] Early morning hyperglycemia
[c] Early morning hypolgycemia
[d] High insulin levels | Early morning hyperglycemia | Early morning hypolgycemia | Hypoglycemia followed by hyperglycemia | High insulin levels | 0 | single | Question repeated The dawn phenomenon, sometimes called the dawn effect, is an early-morning (usually between 2 a.m. and 8 a.m.) increase in blood sugar (glucose) relevant to people with diabetes. It is different from chronic Somogyi rebound in that dawn phenomenon is not associated with nocturnal hypoglycemia. The daw... | Medicine | Endocrinology | [b] Early morning hyperglycemia | [a] Hypoglycemia followed by hyperglycemia
[b] Early morning hyperglycemia
[c] Early morning hypolgycemia
[d] High insulin levels | [b] | [
"[a]",
"[c]",
"[d]"
] | [
"[a] Hypoglycemia followed by hyperglycemia",
"[c] Early morning hypolgycemia",
"[d] High insulin levels"
] | [d] High insulin levels | Choose the correct answer from the options below. | [
{
"content": "Dawn phenomenon refers to-\n\n[a] Hypoglycemia followed by hyperglycemia\n[b] Early morning hyperglycemia\n[c] Early morning hypolgycemia\n[d] High insulin levels",
"role": "user"
},
{
"content": "[b] Early morning hyperglycemia",
"role": "assistant"
}
] |
52cd7973-72df-4573-8f3f-ccaeb6cd8748 | All are true regarding dystocia except:
[1] It is the M/C indication for primary cesarean delivery
[2] ACOG recommends the cervix should be atleast 2 cms dilated for diagnosis of dystocia
[3] Dystocia is difficult labor
[4] Dystocia can be due to abnormality in power, passage and passenger | Dystocia is difficult labor | It is the M/C indication for primary cesarean delivery | ACOG recommends the cervix should be atleast 2 cms dilated for diagnosis of dystocia | Dystocia can be due to abnormality in power, passage and passenger | 2 | multi | Dystocia literally means difficult labor and is characterized by abnormally slow labor progress.
It arises from four distinct abnormalities that may exist singly or in combination:
– Abnormalities of the expulsive forces. Uterine contractions maybe insufficiently strong or inappropriately coordinated to efface and dil... | Gynaecology & Obstetrics | null | [2] ACOG recommends the cervix should be atleast 2 cms dilated for diagnosis of dystocia | [1] It is the M/C indication for primary cesarean delivery
[2] ACOG recommends the cervix should be atleast 2 cms dilated for diagnosis of dystocia
[3] Dystocia is difficult labor
[4] Dystocia can be due to abnormality in power, passage and passenger | [2] | [
"[1]",
"[3]",
"[4]"
] | [
"[1] It is the M/C indication for primary cesarean delivery",
"[3] Dystocia is difficult labor",
"[4] Dystocia can be due to abnormality in power, passage and passenger"
] | [1] It is the M/C indication for primary cesarean delivery | Choose the correct answer from the options below. | [
{
"content": "All are true regarding dystocia except:\n\n[1] It is the M/C indication for primary cesarean delivery\n[2] ACOG recommends the cervix should be atleast 2 cms dilated for diagnosis of dystocia\n[3] Dystocia is difficult labor\n[4] Dystocia can be due to abnormality in power, passage and passenger",... |
c5a8eb5f-df62-4e45-b908-7867063e8513 | Which of the following type of GIC is used as a base?
[A] Type III
[B] Type IIa
[C] Type I
[D] Type IIb | Type I | Type IIa | Type IIb | Type III | 3 | single | Type I: Luting crowns, bridges and orthodontic brackets.
Type IIa: Esthetic restorative cements.
Type IIb: Reinforced restorative cements.
Type III: Lining cements, base.
Ref: Phillip’s Science of Dental Materials ed 12 pg 320 | Dental | null | [A] Type III | [A] Type III
[B] Type IIa
[C] Type I
[D] Type IIb | [A] | [
"[B]",
"[C]",
"[D]"
] | [
"[B] Type IIa",
"[C] Type I",
"[D] Type IIb"
] | [B] Type IIa | Choose the correct answer from the options below. | [
{
"content": "Which of the following type of GIC is used as a base?\n\n[A] Type III\n[B] Type IIa\n[C] Type I\n[D] Type IIb",
"role": "user"
},
{
"content": "[A] Type III",
"role": "assistant"
}
] |
060d3e68-ab85-44b5-a04d-f095e017a63c | Which of the following is a broad spectrum antibiotic ?
I. Erythromycin
II. Streptomycin
III. All
IV. Tetracycline | Erythromycin | Streptomycin | Tetracycline | All | 2 | multi | null | Pharmacology | null | IV. Tetracycline | I. Erythromycin
II. Streptomycin
III. All
IV. Tetracycline | IV. | [
"I.",
"II.",
"III."
] | [
"I. Erythromycin",
"II. Streptomycin",
"III. All"
] | I. Erythromycin | Choose the correct answer from the options below. | [
{
"content": "Which of the following is a broad spectrum antibiotic ?\n\nI. Erythromycin\nII. Streptomycin\nIII. All\nIV. Tetracycline",
"role": "user"
},
{
"content": "IV. Tetracycline",
"role": "assistant"
}
] |
4f243bb0-bdf6-40f9-a46f-96e389ecea11 | A neonate has recurrent attacks of abdominal pain, restless irritability and diaphoresis on feeding. Cardiac auscultation reveals a nonspecific murmur. He is believed to be at risk for M.I. Likely diagnosis here is:
(1) VSD
(2) ASD
(3) TOF
(4) Anomalous coronary aery | ASD | VSD | TOF | Anomalous coronary aery | 3 | single | Normally coronary aery arise from the aoic root, but in this condition it arise from the pulmonary aery. In this case oxygen supply to myocardium is compromised due to delivery of deoxygenated blood and low perfusion pressures. Soon after bih (Neonate) as the pulmonary aerial pressure falls, perfusion pressure to the l... | Pediatrics | null | (4) Anomalous coronary aery | (1) VSD
(2) ASD
(3) TOF
(4) Anomalous coronary aery | (4) | [
"(1)",
"(2)",
"(3)"
] | [
"(1) VSD",
"(2) ASD",
"(3) TOF"
] | (1) VSD | Choose the correct answer from the options below. | [
{
"content": "A neonate has recurrent attacks of abdominal pain, restless irritability and diaphoresis on feeding. Cardiac auscultation reveals a nonspecific murmur. He is believed to be at risk for M.I. Likely diagnosis here is:\n\n(1) VSD\n(2) ASD\n(3) TOF\n(4) Anomalous coronary aery",
"role": "user"
}... |
e350621b-5922-4955-a17f-eb626b38f668 | Green extra aicular ahrodesis done for -
a) Coxa vara
b) Congenital veical talus
c) Genu Valgum
d) Cubitus varus | Genu Valgum | Coxa vara | Congenital veical talus | Cubitus varus | 2 | single | Ans. is 'c' i.e., Congenital Veical Talus Grice and Green procedure is an extra aicular fusion (ahrodesis) of the subtalar joint. It is used in the treatment of patients of congenital veical talus between age of 4 to 8 years old along with open reduction of the deformity. | Surgery | null | b) Congenital veical talus | a) Coxa vara
b) Congenital veical talus
c) Genu Valgum
d) Cubitus varus | b) | [
"a)",
"c)",
"d)"
] | [
"a) Coxa vara",
"c) Genu Valgum",
"d) Cubitus varus"
] | d) Cubitus varus | Choose the correct answer from the options below. | [
{
"content": "Green extra aicular ahrodesis done for -\n\na) Coxa vara\nb) Congenital veical talus\nc) Genu Valgum\nd) Cubitus varus",
"role": "user"
},
{
"content": "b) Congenital veical talus",
"role": "assistant"
}
] |
96bf26ac-a991-48b0-be79-85b7ea394ea6 | Anti cancer drug causing nephrotoxicity -
a. Busulfan
b. Cyclophosphamide
c. Procarbazine
d. Cisplatin | Cyclophosphamide | Busulfan | Cisplatin | Procarbazine | 2 | single | Ans. is 'c' i.e., Cisplatin Platinum compoundo These are alkylating agents and act by similar mechanism,o Drugs are -First generation-CisplatinSecond generation-CarboplatinThird generation-OxaliplatinSide effects of Cisplatino Vomitingo Ototoxicityo Hyperuricemiao Nephrotoxicityo Neuropathy Note-o Cisplatin is most nep... | Pharmacology | Anti-Neoplastic Agents | d. Cisplatin | a. Busulfan
b. Cyclophosphamide
c. Procarbazine
d. Cisplatin | d. | [
"a.",
"b.",
"c."
] | [
"a. Busulfan",
"b. Cyclophosphamide",
"c. Procarbazine"
] | b. Cyclophosphamide | Choose the correct answer from the options below. | [
{
"content": "Anti cancer drug causing nephrotoxicity -\n\na. Busulfan\nb. Cyclophosphamide\nc. Procarbazine\nd. Cisplatin",
"role": "user"
},
{
"content": "d. Cisplatin",
"role": "assistant"
}
] |
e6f6ae38-ae91-4a9f-8687-81d7196420b9 | K+ sparing diuretic is :
a. Furosemide
b. Spironolactone
c. Thiazide
d. None | Furosemide | Spironolactone | Thiazide | None | 1 | multi | null | Pharmacology | null | b. Spironolactone | a. Furosemide
b. Spironolactone
c. Thiazide
d. None | b. | [
"a.",
"c.",
"d."
] | [
"a. Furosemide",
"c. Thiazide",
"d. None"
] | d. None | Choose the correct answer from the options below. | [
{
"content": "K+ sparing diuretic is :\n\na. Furosemide\nb. Spironolactone\nc. Thiazide\nd. None",
"role": "user"
},
{
"content": "b. Spironolactone",
"role": "assistant"
}
] |
fdb4243f-830c-4c57-8e98-af143aca8a01 | Endemic cretinism is seen when iodine uptake is less than
1. 50microgram/day
2. 5microgram/day
3. 20microgram/day
4. 75microgram/day | 5microgram/day | 20microgram/day | 50microgram/day | 75microgram/day | 1 | single | Endemic cretinism is seen when iodine uptake is less than 20microgram/dayEndemic cretinism is the extreme clinical manifestation of severe hypothyroidism during foetal, neonatal and childhood stages of development. It is characterised by severe and irreversible mental retardation, sho stature, deaf-mutism, spastic dysp... | Social & Preventive Medicine | Nutrition and health | 3. 20microgram/day | 1. 50microgram/day
2. 5microgram/day
3. 20microgram/day
4. 75microgram/day | 3. | [
"1.",
"2.",
"4."
] | [
"1. 50microgram/day",
"2. 5microgram/day",
"4. 75microgram/day"
] | 4. 75microgram/day | Choose the correct answer from the options below. | [
{
"content": "Endemic cretinism is seen when iodine uptake is less than\n\n1. 50microgram/day\n2. 5microgram/day\n3. 20microgram/day\n4. 75microgram/day",
"role": "user"
},
{
"content": "3. 20microgram/day",
"role": "assistant"
}
] |
5faa05f6-8734-4439-aea9-7dc6d3a5318c | An investigator into the life expectancy of IV drug abusers divides a sample of patients into HIV-positive and HIV-negative groups. What type of data does this division constitute?
a. Ordinal
b. Interval
c. Ration
d. Nominal | Nominal | Ordinal | Interval | Ration | 0 | single | Nominal data (also known as nominal scale) is a type of data that is used to label variables without providing any quantitative value. Given question is about HIV-positive and HIV-negative groups; since there is no order of characteristic and it cannot be measured directly. So,it can't be an ordinal data or metric data... | Social & Preventive Medicine | Variables, Scales | d. Nominal | a. Ordinal
b. Interval
c. Ration
d. Nominal | d. | [
"a.",
"b.",
"c."
] | [
"a. Ordinal",
"b. Interval",
"c. Ration"
] | a. Ordinal | Choose the correct answer from the options below. | [
{
"content": "An investigator into the life expectancy of IV drug abusers divides a sample of patients into HIV-positive and HIV-negative groups. What type of data does this division constitute?\n\na. Ordinal\nb. Interval\nc. Ration\nd. Nominal",
"role": "user"
},
{
"content": "d. Nominal",
"rol... |
085e033e-d9c0-4729-bf92-3ae2476ceb22 | What is the drug of choice for Obsessive Compulsive Disorder?
a) Benzodiazepines
b) Fluoxetine
c) Alprazolam
d) Imipramine | Imipramine | Fluoxetine | Benzodiazepines | Alprazolam | 1 | single | Ans. (B) Fluoxetine(Ref: Harrison 17/e p2715; CMDT 2010/943; KDT 8/e p492)SSRIs are drug of choice for most of the neurotic disorders including OCD. | Pharmacology | C.N.S | b) Fluoxetine | a) Benzodiazepines
b) Fluoxetine
c) Alprazolam
d) Imipramine | b) | [
"a)",
"c)",
"d)"
] | [
"a) Benzodiazepines",
"c) Alprazolam",
"d) Imipramine"
] | a) Benzodiazepines | Choose the correct answer from the options below. | [
{
"content": "What is the drug of choice for Obsessive Compulsive Disorder?\n\na) Benzodiazepines\nb) Fluoxetine\nc) Alprazolam\nd) Imipramine",
"role": "user"
},
{
"content": "b) Fluoxetine",
"role": "assistant"
}
] |
19d439fa-59b0-420e-b75f-d16db6cfd7fd | Which true about MDC
A. Half the prevalence of HIV-AIDS by 2015
B. Reduce maternal moality by 50% by 1990-2012
C. Reduce hunger and povey by half
D. Reduce by 2/3rd the under five moality by year 1990-2012 | Reduce by 2/3rd the under five moality by year 1990-2012 | Half the prevalence of HIV-AIDS by 2015 | Reduce maternal moality by 50% by 1990-2012 | Reduce hunger and povey by half | 0 | multi | Ans. a. Reduce by 2/3rd the under five moality by year 1990-2012 Millennium Development Goals Millennium Development Goal 1: eradicate extreme povey and hungerdeg Target 1.C. Halve, between 1990 and 2015, the propoion of people who suffer from hungerdeg Millennium Development Goal 4: reduce child moalitydeg Target 4.A.... | Social & Preventive Medicine | null | D. Reduce by 2/3rd the under five moality by year 1990-2012 | A. Half the prevalence of HIV-AIDS by 2015
B. Reduce maternal moality by 50% by 1990-2012
C. Reduce hunger and povey by half
D. Reduce by 2/3rd the under five moality by year 1990-2012 | D. | [
"A.",
"B.",
"C."
] | [
"A. Half the prevalence of HIV-AIDS by 2015",
"B. Reduce maternal moality by 50% by 1990-2012",
"C. Reduce hunger and povey by half"
] | A. Half the prevalence of HIV-AIDS by 2015 | Choose the correct answer from the options below. | [
{
"content": "Which true about MDC\n\nA. Half the prevalence of HIV-AIDS by 2015\nB. Reduce maternal moality by 50% by 1990-2012\nC. Reduce hunger and povey by half\nD. Reduce by 2/3rd the under five moality by year 1990-2012",
"role": "user"
},
{
"content": "D. Reduce by 2/3rd the under five moalit... |
d0259a36-d4f5-42a2-85a0-0a869a2b3b96 | On medical check up of a Punjabi student following findings were seen Hb of 9.9gm/d1, RBC count of 5.1 million, MCV of 62.5 fl and RDW of 13.51%. What is the most probable diagnosis ?
a) HbD
b) Anemia of chronic disease
c) Thalassemia trait
d) Iron deficiency anemia | HbD | Thalassemia trait | Iron deficiency anemia | Anemia of chronic disease | 1 | single | Answer- B. Thalassemia traitNormal RDW with low MCV is seen in-- Anemia of chronic diseaseHeterozygous thalassemia (Thalassemia trait)Hemoglobin E trait. | Medicine | null | c) Thalassemia trait | a) HbD
b) Anemia of chronic disease
c) Thalassemia trait
d) Iron deficiency anemia | c) | [
"a)",
"b)",
"d)"
] | [
"a) HbD",
"b) Anemia of chronic disease",
"d) Iron deficiency anemia"
] | a) HbD | Choose the correct answer from the options below. | [
{
"content": "On medical check up of a Punjabi student following findings were seen Hb of 9.9gm/d1, RBC count of 5.1 million, MCV of 62.5 fl and RDW of 13.51%. What is the most probable diagnosis ?\n\na) HbD\nb) Anemia of chronic disease\nc) Thalassemia trait\nd) Iron deficiency anemia",
"role": "user"
},... |
0c365c0d-492e-41db-acbf-e1ac8a2954a0 | In congenital hyperophic pyloric stenosis, the defect is in
(1) Circular muscle fibres
(2) Longitudinal muscle fibres
(3) Mucosa
(4) Nerve fibres | Nerve fibres | Circular muscle fibres | Longitudinal muscle fibres | Mucosa | 1 | single | Infantile Hyperophic Pyloric stenosis In HPS, hyperophy of circular muscle of pylorus results in constriction & obstruction of gastric outlet Accquired condition Incidence of 1 in 3000 to 4000 live bihs This condition is most common between the ages of 3-6 weeks Associated anomalies in 6-20% cases : Esophageal atresia,... | Surgery | G.I.T | (1) Circular muscle fibres | (1) Circular muscle fibres
(2) Longitudinal muscle fibres
(3) Mucosa
(4) Nerve fibres | (1) | [
"(2)",
"(3)",
"(4)"
] | [
"(2) Longitudinal muscle fibres",
"(3) Mucosa",
"(4) Nerve fibres"
] | (2) Longitudinal muscle fibres | Choose the correct answer from the options below. | [
{
"content": "In congenital hyperophic pyloric stenosis, the defect is in\n\n(1) Circular muscle fibres\n(2) Longitudinal muscle fibres\n(3) Mucosa\n(4) Nerve fibres",
"role": "user"
},
{
"content": "(1) Circular muscle fibres",
"role": "assistant"
}
] |
7e2b88cf-27ae-4920-bf11-7b046622274e | The tubuloglomerular feedback is mediated by:
I. Sensing NaCl concentration in the macula densa
II. Sensing of Na+ concentration in the macula densa
III. Sensing of HCO3 - concentration in macula densa
IV. Opening up of voltage gated Na+ channels in afferent arteriole | Sensing of Na+ concentration in the macula densa | Sensing of HCO3 - concentration in macula densa | Sensing NaCl concentration in the macula densa | Opening up of voltage gated Na+ channels in afferent arteriole | 2 | single | Macula densa sense both Na+ and Cl- , but Cl- is more important. | Physiology | null | I. Sensing NaCl concentration in the macula densa | I. Sensing NaCl concentration in the macula densa
II. Sensing of Na+ concentration in the macula densa
III. Sensing of HCO3 - concentration in macula densa
IV. Opening up of voltage gated Na+ channels in afferent arteriole | I. | [
"II.",
"III.",
"IV."
] | [
"II. Sensing of Na+ concentration in the macula densa",
"III. Sensing of HCO3 - concentration in macula densa",
"IV. Opening up of voltage gated Na+ channels in afferent arteriole"
] | II. Sensing of Na+ concentration in the macula densa | Choose the correct answer from the options below. | [
{
"content": "The tubuloglomerular feedback is mediated by:\n\nI. Sensing NaCl concentration in the macula densa\nII. Sensing of Na+ concentration in the macula densa\nIII. Sensing of HCO3 - concentration in macula densa\nIV. Opening up of voltage gated Na+ channels in afferent arteriole",
"role": "user"
... |
5a0be6c8-1084-4cc3-9f5b-c1828c537c3a | Which of these fatty acids is found exclusively in breast milk?
[a] Docosahexaenoic acid
[b] Palmitic
[c] Linoleate
[d] Linolenic | Linoleate | Linolenic | Palmitic | Docosahexaenoic acid | 3 | single | Ans. D. Docosahexaenoic acid(Ref: Harper31/e page 197, Table 21.2)Docosahexaenoic acid is present in fish oils, phospholipids of brain, algal oils.DHA is otherwise called cervonic acid.It belongs to o3 fatty acid. | Biochemistry | Lipids | [a] Docosahexaenoic acid | [a] Docosahexaenoic acid
[b] Palmitic
[c] Linoleate
[d] Linolenic | [a] | [
"[b]",
"[c]",
"[d]"
] | [
"[b] Palmitic",
"[c] Linoleate",
"[d] Linolenic"
] | [c] Linoleate | Choose the correct answer from the options below. | [
{
"content": "Which of these fatty acids is found exclusively in breast milk?\n\n[a] Docosahexaenoic acid\n[b] Palmitic\n[c] Linoleate\n[d] Linolenic",
"role": "user"
},
{
"content": "[a] Docosahexaenoic acid",
"role": "assistant"
}
] |
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