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e4527fd6-f133-496a-8d55-35af6d4cee68
Most common malocclusion found in people is: 1. Class II division 2 2. Class II division 1 3. Class III 4. Class I with incisor crowding
Class I with incisor crowding
Class II division 1
Class II division 2
Class III
0
single
Class I Malocclusion  A large sampling of our population would show that a majority of the malocclusions are Angle’s Class I malocclusion.
Dental
null
4. Class I with incisor crowding
1. Class II division 2 2. Class II division 1 3. Class III 4. Class I with incisor crowding
4.
[ "1.", "2.", "3." ]
[ "1. Class II division 2", "2. Class II division 1", "3. Class III" ]
1. Class II division 2
Choose the correct answer from the options below.
[ { "content": "Most common malocclusion found in people is:\n\n1. Class II division 2\n2. Class II division 1\n3. Class III\n4. Class I with incisor crowding", "role": "user" }, { "content": "4. Class I with incisor crowding", "role": "assistant" } ]
e8636b15-f816-47ae-b667-12258a0b1764
Serotonin (5-HT) is one of several mediators of the signs and symptoms of carcinoid tumor. When released from this neoplasm, most of the manifestations of 5-HT are the result of activation of the 5-HT2 receptor. These manifestations are therefore likely to include which of the following effects? A) Skeletal muscle wea...
Bronchospasm
Constipation
Skeletal muscle weakness
Tachycardia
0
single
- 5-HT2 receptors mediate smooth muscle contraction and thus cause bronchospasm and diarrhea, not constipation.- Skeletal muscle and cardiac muscle are relatively insensitive to 5-HT.- Peptic ulceration is not mediated in pa by 5-HT; the autacoid actually reduces acid secretion.
Surgery
GIT
C) Bronchospasm
A) Skeletal muscle weakness B) Tachycardia C) Bronchospasm D) Constipation
C)
[ "A)", "B)", "D)" ]
[ "A) Skeletal muscle weakness", "B) Tachycardia", "D) Constipation" ]
A) Skeletal muscle weakness
Choose the correct answer from the options below.
[ { "content": "Serotonin (5-HT) is one of several mediators of the signs and symptoms of carcinoid tumor. When released from this neoplasm, most of the manifestations of 5-HT are the result of activation of the 5-HT2 receptor. These manifestations are therefore likely to include which of the following effects?\n...
8652bc51-efa3-4b41-9aba-60d1821ab73d
Anal phase of psychosexual stages of development is seen during a. 5-12 years b. 0-1.5 years c. 1.5-3 years d. 3-5 years
0-1.5 years
1.5-3 years
3-5 years
5-12 years
1
single
Oral phase: 0-1.5 years Anal phase: 1.5-3 years Phallic phase: 3-5 years Latent phase: 5-12 years Genital phase: > 12 years
Psychiatry
null
c. 1.5-3 years
a. 5-12 years b. 0-1.5 years c. 1.5-3 years d. 3-5 years
c.
[ "a.", "b.", "d." ]
[ "a. 5-12 years", "b. 0-1.5 years", "d. 3-5 years" ]
d. 3-5 years
Choose the correct answer from the options below.
[ { "content": "Anal phase of psychosexual stages of development is seen during\n\na. 5-12 years\nb. 0-1.5 years\nc. 1.5-3 years\nd. 3-5 years", "role": "user" }, { "content": "c. 1.5-3 years", "role": "assistant" } ]
d6fb8c1d-f4df-4919-a430-9128b7df47e5
True statement about gallstones are all except: (A) More common in males between 30-40 years of age (B) Associated with diabetes mellitus (C) May be associated with carcinoma gallbladder (D) Lithogenic bile is required for stone formation
Lithogenic bile is required for stone formation
May be associated with carcinoma gallbladder
Associated with diabetes mellitus
More common in males between 30-40 years of age
3
multi
Ans. (d) More common in males between 30-40 years of ageDiabetes mellitus and Gall stones:* Diabetes though not a direct risk factor for gall stones- the following factors in diabetes may increase the chance of getting Gall stones:# Increased Bile Cholesterol# Poor GB motility# Decreased Bile Acids
Surgery
Gall Bladder & Bile Ducts
(A) More common in males between 30-40 years of age
(A) More common in males between 30-40 years of age (B) Associated with diabetes mellitus (C) May be associated with carcinoma gallbladder (D) Lithogenic bile is required for stone formation
(A)
[ "(B)", "(C)", "(D)" ]
[ "(B) Associated with diabetes mellitus", "(C) May be associated with carcinoma gallbladder", "(D) Lithogenic bile is required for stone formation" ]
(D) Lithogenic bile is required for stone formation
Choose the correct answer from the options below.
[ { "content": "True statement about gallstones are all except:\n\n(A) More common in males between 30-40 years of age\n(B) Associated with diabetes mellitus\n(C) May be associated with carcinoma gallbladder\n(D) Lithogenic bile is required for stone formation", "role": "user" }, { "content": "(A) Mor...
87c54909-e9e1-4ad3-89ab-69739055aee9
Which of the following drug is a 5HT2c agonist approved for treatment of obesity and causes Serotonin Syndrome as an adverse effect? (a) Lorcaserin (b) Sibutramine (c) Modafinil (d) Rimonabant
Lorcaserin
Sibutramine
Modafinil
Rimonabant
0
single
Lorcaserin: 5HT2c agonist Causes weight loss S/E: Serotonin syndrome Sibutramine: Serotonin and nor-adrenaline reuptake inhibitor Discontinued due to increased risk of stroke Modafinil: used in treatment of Narcolepsy Rimonabant: Inverse agonist of cannabinoid receptor - 1 Causes weight loss Prevents craving of alcohol...
Pharmacology
Histamine, 5-HT and PGs
(a) Lorcaserin
(a) Lorcaserin (b) Sibutramine (c) Modafinil (d) Rimonabant
(a)
[ "(b)", "(c)", "(d)" ]
[ "(b) Sibutramine", "(c) Modafinil", "(d) Rimonabant" ]
(b) Sibutramine
Choose the correct answer from the options below.
[ { "content": "Which of the following drug is a 5HT2c agonist approved for treatment of obesity and causes Serotonin Syndrome as an adverse effect?\n\n(a) Lorcaserin\n(b) Sibutramine\n(c) Modafinil\n(d) Rimonabant", "role": "user" }, { "content": "(a) Lorcaserin", "role": "assistant" } ]
2ad9e5c2-5858-4fa3-813e-6cbcec4e4b06
Which of the following drugs has covalent interaction with its target ? (1) Nitric oxide (2) Penicillin (3) Aspirin (4) Bosentan
Aspirin
Penicillin
Nitric oxide
Bosentan
0
single
Covalent interaction means irreversible inhibition of the enzyme. Aspirin irreversibly acetylates the cox enzyme.
Pharmacology
null
(3) Aspirin
(1) Nitric oxide (2) Penicillin (3) Aspirin (4) Bosentan
(3)
[ "(1)", "(2)", "(4)" ]
[ "(1) Nitric oxide", "(2) Penicillin", "(4) Bosentan" ]
(4) Bosentan
Choose the correct answer from the options below.
[ { "content": "Which of the following drugs has covalent interaction with its target ?\n\n(1) Nitric oxide\n(2) Penicillin\n(3) Aspirin\n(4) Bosentan", "role": "user" }, { "content": "(3) Aspirin", "role": "assistant" } ]
fd2073fc-15c0-49d6-8152-d1dbf92c1ad2
A 52-year-old woman has had a chronic cough for the past 2 years, accompanied by a small amount of occasionally blood-streaked, whitish sputum. On physical examination, her temperature is 37.9deg C, pulse is 72/min, respirations are 22/min, and blood pressure is 125/80 mm Hg. Crackles are heard on auscultation over the...
Candida albicans
Coxsackievirus B
Group A streptococcus
Mycobacterium tuberculosis
3
multi
The clinical features are those of pericarditis with effusion, and the most common causes of hemorrhagic pericarditis are metastatic carcinoma and tuberculosis. An effusion of this size is sufficient to produce some cardiac tamponade that diminishes cardiac output; the paradoxical drop in pressure (more than 10 mm Hg) ...
Pathology
C.V.S
(2) Mycobacterium tuberculosis
(1) Candida albicans (2) Mycobacterium tuberculosis (3) Group A streptococcus (4) Coxsackievirus B
(2)
[ "(1)", "(3)", "(4)" ]
[ "(1) Candida albicans", "(3) Group A streptococcus", "(4) Coxsackievirus B" ]
(4) Coxsackievirus B
Choose the correct answer from the options below.
[ { "content": "A 52-year-old woman has had a chronic cough for the past 2 years, accompanied by a small amount of occasionally blood-streaked, whitish sputum. On physical examination, her temperature is 37.9deg C, pulse is 72/min, respirations are 22/min, and blood pressure is 125/80 mm Hg. Crackles are heard on...
dcea52a1-1f51-49d8-8fbe-d20917feae03
Cytokine causing fever A. IL-18 B. IFN-y C. IL-4 D. IL-6
IL-6
IFN-y
IL-18
IL-4
0
single
Ans. is 'a' i.e., IL-6
Pathology
null
D. IL-6
A. IL-18 B. IFN-y C. IL-4 D. IL-6
D.
[ "A.", "B.", "C." ]
[ "A. IL-18", "B. IFN-y", "C. IL-4" ]
B. IFN-y
Choose the correct answer from the options below.
[ { "content": "Cytokine causing fever\n\nA. IL-18\nB. IFN-y\nC. IL-4\nD. IL-6", "role": "user" }, { "content": "D. IL-6", "role": "assistant" } ]
fbd98660-aa2e-49f5-88e3-a5b5ef8102b8
Which of the following are the qualities of a green light food as per traffic light diet plan for children? (a) None of the above (b) Nutrition dense, but higher In calories and fat (c) Low calories, high fibre, low fat. Nutrition-dense (d) High in calories. sugar and fat
Nutrition dense, but higher In calories and fat
Low calories, high fibre, low fat. Nutrition-dense
High in calories. sugar and fat
None of the above
1
multi
The "traffic light" diet groups food as: Category Characteristics Recommended Intake Examples Red High in calories, sugar, and fat Reserved for infrequent treats Fatty meats, sugar, sweet beverages, fried foods Yellow Nutrient-dense, but higher in calories & fat In moderation Lean meats, dairy, starches, grains Green L...
Pediatrics
Malnutrition
(c) Low calories, high fibre, low fat. Nutrition-dense
(a) None of the above (b) Nutrition dense, but higher In calories and fat (c) Low calories, high fibre, low fat. Nutrition-dense (d) High in calories. sugar and fat
(c)
[ "(a)", "(b)", "(d)" ]
[ "(a) None of the above", "(b) Nutrition dense, but higher In calories and fat", "(d) High in calories. sugar and fat" ]
(b) Nutrition dense, but higher In calories and fat
Choose the correct answer from the options below.
[ { "content": "Which of the following are the qualities of a green light food as per traffic light diet plan for children?\n\n(a) None of the above\n(b) Nutrition dense, but higher In calories and fat\n(c) Low calories, high fibre, low fat. Nutrition-dense\n(d) High in calories. sugar and fat", "role": "user...
dfe941e3-add1-4dec-9951-8da0657c9c06
Which of the following is the investigation of choice for assessment of depth of penetration and perirectal nodes in rectal cancer? I. MRI scan II. CT scan III. Double contrast barium enema IV. Trans rectal ultrasound
Trans rectal ultrasound
CT scan
Double contrast barium enema
MRI scan
3
single
Ans. (d) MRI ScanRef: Sabiston 19th Edition, Pages 1357-1358* Endo rectal MRI is the standard investigation to do T and N staging of cancer rectum* It's also good for overall staging** Even endorectal MRI is replaced now by surface coil MRI
Surgery
Rectum
I. MRI scan
I. MRI scan II. CT scan III. Double contrast barium enema IV. Trans rectal ultrasound
I.
[ "II.", "III.", "IV." ]
[ "II. CT scan", "III. Double contrast barium enema", "IV. Trans rectal ultrasound" ]
IV. Trans rectal ultrasound
Choose the correct answer from the options below.
[ { "content": "Which of the following is the investigation of choice for assessment of depth of penetration and perirectal nodes in rectal cancer?\n\nI. MRI scan\nII. CT scan\nIII. Double contrast barium enema\nIV. Trans rectal ultrasound", "role": "user" }, { "content": "I. MRI scan", "role": "a...
4b1cf599-7414-44dc-9882-8b1c19cbae78
A case of Non – Insulin dependent diabetes mellitus (NIDDM) with a history of diabetes for one year should have an ophthalmic examination ? [A] Only after visual symptoms develop [B] After 10 years [C] After 5 years [D] As early as feasible
As early as feasible
After 5 years
After 10 years
Only after visual symptoms develop
0
single
The American Academy of ophthalmology has recommended screening for diabetic retinopathy 5 years after the diagnosis in patients with type 1 DM (Juvenile onset/IDDM), and at the time of diagnosis in patients with type 2 diabetes (maturity onset / NIDDM).
Ophthalmology
null
[D] As early as feasible
[A] Only after visual symptoms develop [B] After 10 years [C] After 5 years [D] As early as feasible
[D]
[ "[A]", "[B]", "[C]" ]
[ "[A] Only after visual symptoms develop", "[B] After 10 years", "[C] After 5 years" ]
[B] After 10 years
Choose the correct answer from the options below.
[ { "content": "A case of Non – Insulin dependent diabetes mellitus (NIDDM) with a history of diabetes for one year should have an ophthalmic examination ?\n\n[A] Only after visual symptoms develop\n[B] After 10 years\n[C] After 5 years\n[D] As early as feasible", "role": "user" }, { "content": "[D] A...
21a1a99a-ad85-49d8-880e-d0acf188fcbb
Which of the following morphological changes in the lungs would be found in this patient of asthma [1] Peribronchiolar fibrosis [2] Viscid mucus plugs in the small airways [3] Destruction and dilation of the bronchi and bronchioles [4] Free air in the interstitium
Destruction and dilation of the bronchi and bronchioles
Free air in the interstitium
Viscid mucus plugs in the small airways
Peribronchiolar fibrosis
2
multi
In the given case of atopic asthma,airway wall may be thickened and edematous.Another common finding is occlusion of the airway lumen by a mucous plug.,which is comprised of mucous glycoproteins secreted from goblet cells and plasma proteins from leaky bronchial walls.There is also vasodilation and increased numbers of...
Medicine
Respiratory system
[2] Viscid mucus plugs in the small airways
[1] Peribronchiolar fibrosis [2] Viscid mucus plugs in the small airways [3] Destruction and dilation of the bronchi and bronchioles [4] Free air in the interstitium
[2]
[ "[1]", "[3]", "[4]" ]
[ "[1] Peribronchiolar fibrosis", "[3] Destruction and dilation of the bronchi and bronchioles", "[4] Free air in the interstitium" ]
[3] Destruction and dilation of the bronchi and bronchioles
Choose the correct answer from the options below.
[ { "content": "Which of the following morphological changes in the lungs would be found in this patient of asthma\n\n[1] Peribronchiolar fibrosis\n[2] Viscid mucus plugs in the small airways\n[3] Destruction and dilation of the bronchi and bronchioles\n[4] Free air in the interstitium", "role": "user" }, ...
87486b51-53da-4687-a141-f260874953e5
InPHC how to dispose placenta- i. Incineration ii. Chemical treatment iii. Microwaving iv. Autoclaving
Incineration
Microwaving
Autoclaving
Chemical treatment
0
single
Ans. is 'a' i.e., Incineration o Human anatomical waste (human tissues organs, body pas), e.g. placenta, are disposed by incineration or deep burial.
Social & Preventive Medicine
null
i. Incineration
i. Incineration ii. Chemical treatment iii. Microwaving iv. Autoclaving
i.
[ "ii.", "iii.", "iv." ]
[ "ii. Chemical treatment", "iii. Microwaving", "iv. Autoclaving" ]
ii. Chemical treatment
Choose the correct answer from the options below.
[ { "content": "InPHC how to dispose placenta-\n\ni. Incineration\nii. Chemical treatment\niii. Microwaving\niv. Autoclaving", "role": "user" }, { "content": "i. Incineration", "role": "assistant" } ]
e702fcf3-c643-4e36-9c7b-1aefd8fa347d
Most common type of lesion in Pott's spine: (a) Appendiceal (b) Paradiscal (c) Anterior (d) Central
Central
Anterior
Paradiscal
Appendiceal
2
single
The most common type of lesion in Pott's spine is Paradiscal area. Because the paradiscal area (lower pa of upper veebrae, upper pa of lower veebrae and the in-between veebral disc) arise from single mesodermal somite &has single supply of segmental aery through which tuberculosis spreads. Central (within the veebrae),...
Orthopaedics
FMGE 2017
(b) Paradiscal
(a) Appendiceal (b) Paradiscal (c) Anterior (d) Central
(b)
[ "(a)", "(c)", "(d)" ]
[ "(a) Appendiceal", "(c) Anterior", "(d) Central" ]
(d) Central
Choose the correct answer from the options below.
[ { "content": "Most common type of lesion in Pott's spine:\n\n(a) Appendiceal\n(b) Paradiscal\n(c) Anterior\n(d) Central", "role": "user" }, { "content": "(b) Paradiscal", "role": "assistant" } ]
7ba35cb8-f1d6-4e20-9a90-06e8228c0f1f
Post exposure vaccination is given in - (A) Mumps (B) None (C) Rabies (D) Typhoid
Typhoid
Rabies
Mumps
None
1
multi
Ans. is 'b' i.e., Rabies {Ref: Park 22nd/e p. 254r 114]Post-exposure immunizationo Post exposure immunization is prophylactic immunization immediately after exposure to a pathogen, in order to prevent infection by the pathogen and the development of disease,o Post exposure immunization is given for -i) Varicella (chick...
Social & Preventive Medicine
Rabies
(C) Rabies
(A) Mumps (B) None (C) Rabies (D) Typhoid
(C)
[ "(A)", "(B)", "(D)" ]
[ "(A) Mumps", "(B) None", "(D) Typhoid" ]
(A) Mumps
Choose the correct answer from the options below.
[ { "content": "Post exposure vaccination is given in -\n\n(A) Mumps\n(B) None\n(C) Rabies\n(D) Typhoid", "role": "user" }, { "content": "(C) Rabies", "role": "assistant" } ]
741f99ce-a86a-4c56-9a3b-0f4e25ddc0fa
Which of the following aminoacids have maximum buffering capacity at PH 7? 1. Lysine 2. Histidine 3. Glycine 4. Arginine
Lysine
Arginine
Histidine
Glycine
2
single
pKa of histidine is 6.5 - 7.4. It allows for maximum buffering capacity at neutral pH.
Biochemistry
null
2. Histidine
1. Lysine 2. Histidine 3. Glycine 4. Arginine
2.
[ "1.", "3.", "4." ]
[ "1. Lysine", "3. Glycine", "4. Arginine" ]
4. Arginine
Choose the correct answer from the options below.
[ { "content": "Which of the following aminoacids have maximum buffering capacity at PH 7?\n\n1. Lysine\n2. Histidine\n3. Glycine\n4. Arginine", "role": "user" }, { "content": "2. Histidine", "role": "assistant" } ]
aacc86ef-cdc4-491b-bbe2-533024915c5f
The structure that lies lateral to distal radial tubercle is ? a. Brachoradialis b. Extensor carpi radialis longus c. Extensor carpi ulnaris d. Extensor pollicis longus
Extensor pollicis longus
Extensor carpi radialis longus
Brachoradialis
Extensor carpi ulnaris
1
single
Ans. is 'b' i.e., Extensor carpi radialis longus Dorum of lower end of radius has dorsal tubercle of radius (Lister's tubercle), which can be palpated in the line with the cleft between the index and middle fingers.The groove medial to Lister's tubercle is traversed by tendon of extensor pollicis longus.The groove late...
Anatomy
null
b. Extensor carpi radialis longus
a. Brachoradialis b. Extensor carpi radialis longus c. Extensor carpi ulnaris d. Extensor pollicis longus
b.
[ "a.", "c.", "d." ]
[ "a. Brachoradialis", "c. Extensor carpi ulnaris", "d. Extensor pollicis longus" ]
a. Brachoradialis
Choose the correct answer from the options below.
[ { "content": "The structure that lies lateral to distal radial tubercle is ?\n\na. Brachoradialis\nb. Extensor carpi radialis longus\nc. Extensor carpi ulnaris\nd. Extensor pollicis longus", "role": "user" }, { "content": "b. Extensor carpi radialis longus", "role": "assistant" } ]
3c3688d7-d409-4ec0-9ba4-01afc19bf5bf
Commonest variety of carcinoma stomach is - [a] Colloid carcinoma [b] Adenocarcinoma [c] Squamous carcinoma [d] None
Squamous carcinoma
Adenocarcinoma
Colloid carcinoma
None
1
multi
About 85% of stomach cancers are adenocarcinoma. Louren classified gastric adenocarcinoma into two subtypes :- Intestinal Variant → Composed of neoplastic intestinal gland resembling those of colonic adenocarcinoma. Diffuse variant → Composed of gastric type mucous cells, which generally do not form glands. The appea...
Pathology
null
[b] Adenocarcinoma
[a] Colloid carcinoma [b] Adenocarcinoma [c] Squamous carcinoma [d] None
[b]
[ "[a]", "[c]", "[d]" ]
[ "[a] Colloid carcinoma", "[c] Squamous carcinoma", "[d] None" ]
[a] Colloid carcinoma
Choose the correct answer from the options below.
[ { "content": "Commonest variety of carcinoma stomach is -\n\n[a] Colloid carcinoma\n[b] Adenocarcinoma\n[c] Squamous carcinoma\n[d] None", "role": "user" }, { "content": "[b] Adenocarcinoma", "role": "assistant" } ]
7a7f5bfe-c812-4fae-8b19-927825035080
Primary open-angle glaucoma is associated with all of the following except: a) Diabetes mellitus b) Hypehyroidism c) Pars planitis d) Myopia
Diabetes mellitus
Myopia
Hypehyroidism
Pars planitis
3
multi
Ans. Pars planitis
Ophthalmology
null
c) Pars planitis
a) Diabetes mellitus b) Hypehyroidism c) Pars planitis d) Myopia
c)
[ "a)", "b)", "d)" ]
[ "a) Diabetes mellitus", "b) Hypehyroidism", "d) Myopia" ]
b) Hypehyroidism
Choose the correct answer from the options below.
[ { "content": "Primary open-angle glaucoma is associated with all of the following except:\n\na) Diabetes mellitus\nb) Hypehyroidism\nc) Pars planitis\nd) Myopia", "role": "user" }, { "content": "c) Pars planitis", "role": "assistant" } ]
8189ab38-2d58-48f0-9990-2d367afcbc80
Most common bony metastasesis due to which primary? (A) Prostate (B) Melanoma (C) Kidney (D) Liver
Prostate
Kidney
Liver
Melanoma
0
single
Ans. is 'a' i.e., Prostate * Bone is a common site of metastasis for carcinomas of the prostate, breast, lung, kidney, bladder, and thyroid and for lymphomas and sarcomas.* Prostate, breast, and lung primaries account for 80% of all bone metastases.
Surgery
Prostate & Seminal Vesicles
(A) Prostate
(A) Prostate (B) Melanoma (C) Kidney (D) Liver
(A)
[ "(B)", "(C)", "(D)" ]
[ "(B) Melanoma", "(C) Kidney", "(D) Liver" ]
(C) Kidney
Choose the correct answer from the options below.
[ { "content": "Most common bony metastasesis due to which primary?\n\n(A) Prostate\n(B) Melanoma\n(C) Kidney\n(D) Liver", "role": "user" }, { "content": "(A) Prostate", "role": "assistant" } ]
2d2781a2-c71c-4b5a-8c61-c42907545379
RNA polymerase recognizes? [a] Initiation site [b] Stop site [c] Promoter site [d] Regulator site
Promoter site
Initiation site
Regulator site
Stop site
0
single
(40) Promoter site REF: Harper 27`h ed p. 349 RNA polymerase has sigma sub unit which recognises promotor nucleotide sequence. It does not require primer and has no proof reading activity Types: r RNA m RNA, mi RNA, Sn RNA t- RNA, 5s-rRNA, some SnRNA
Biochemistry
null
[c] Promoter site
[a] Initiation site [b] Stop site [c] Promoter site [d] Regulator site
[c]
[ "[a]", "[b]", "[d]" ]
[ "[a] Initiation site", "[b] Stop site", "[d] Regulator site" ]
[b] Stop site
Choose the correct answer from the options below.
[ { "content": "RNA polymerase recognizes?\n\n[a] Initiation site\n[b] Stop site\n[c] Promoter site\n[d] Regulator site", "role": "user" }, { "content": "[c] Promoter site", "role": "assistant" } ]
ae835e6f-2272-4558-bc39-ca6b214ae6de
After birth, care of eye of newborn is by a) Crede’s method b) AgNO3 eye drop c) Antibiotics d) Normal saline
AgNO3 eye drop
Antibiotics
Normal saline
Crede’s method
0
single
null
Social & Preventive Medicine
null
b) AgNO3 eye drop
a) Crede’s method b) AgNO3 eye drop c) Antibiotics d) Normal saline
b)
[ "a)", "c)", "d)" ]
[ "a) Crede’s method", "c) Antibiotics", "d) Normal saline" ]
c) Antibiotics
Choose the correct answer from the options below.
[ { "content": "After birth, care of eye of newborn is by\n\na) Crede’s method\nb) AgNO3 eye drop\nc) Antibiotics\nd) Normal saline", "role": "user" }, { "content": "b) AgNO3 eye drop", "role": "assistant" } ]
dfb6145d-41ea-4e82-9c0a-59b6f6941f31
During heavy exercise the cardiac output (CO) increases upto five fold while pulmonary aerial pressure rises very little. This physiological ability of the pulmonary circulation is best explained by: I. Increase in the number of open capillaries II. Smaller surface area of pulmonary circulation III. Sympathetically me...
Increase in the number of open capillaries
Sympathetically mediated greater distensibility of pulmonary vessels
Large amount of smooth muscle in pulmonary aerioles
Smaller surface area of pulmonary circulation
0
multi
A i.e. Increase in the number of open capillaries
Physiology
null
I. Increase in the number of open capillaries
I. Increase in the number of open capillaries II. Smaller surface area of pulmonary circulation III. Sympathetically mediated greater distensibility of pulmonary vessels IV. Large amount of smooth muscle in pulmonary aerioles
I.
[ "II.", "III.", "IV." ]
[ "II. Smaller surface area of pulmonary circulation", "III. Sympathetically mediated greater distensibility of pulmonary vessels", "IV. Large amount of smooth muscle in pulmonary aerioles" ]
IV. Large amount of smooth muscle in pulmonary aerioles
Choose the correct answer from the options below.
[ { "content": "During heavy exercise the cardiac output (CO) increases upto five fold while pulmonary aerial pressure rises very little. This physiological ability of the pulmonary circulation is best explained by:\n\nI. Increase in the number of open capillaries\nII. Smaller surface area of pulmonary circulatio...
4d90d579-d233-44b4-945c-cd1da5736978
Purpose of sentinel surveillance is - A) To know total number of cases B) Prevention of disease C) To know natural history of disease D) Health planning
To know total number of cases
Health planning
Prevention of disease
To know natural history of disease
0
single
Ans. is 'a' i.e., To know total number of cases o The sentinel data is extrapolated to the entire population to estimate the disease prevalence in the total population. So, it helps in estimating the total amount of disease in a community.
Social & Preventive Medicine
null
A) To know total number of cases
A) To know total number of cases B) Prevention of disease C) To know natural history of disease D) Health planning
A)
[ "B)", "C)", "D)" ]
[ "B) Prevention of disease", "C) To know natural history of disease", "D) Health planning" ]
D) Health planning
Choose the correct answer from the options below.
[ { "content": "Purpose of sentinel surveillance is -\n\nA) To know total number of cases\nB) Prevention of disease\nC) To know natural history of disease\nD) Health planning", "role": "user" }, { "content": "A) To know total number of cases", "role": "assistant" } ]
32bc3497-5ace-4972-b844-83ca2ec73b28
Aromatase enzyme conves ? [A] Androgen to estrogen [B] Androgen to progesterone [C] Progesterone to estrogen [D] Estrogen to androgen
Estrogen to androgen
Androgen to estrogen
Progesterone to estrogen
Androgen to progesterone
1
single
Ans. is 'b' i.e., Androgen to estrogen
Physiology
null
[A] Androgen to estrogen
[A] Androgen to estrogen [B] Androgen to progesterone [C] Progesterone to estrogen [D] Estrogen to androgen
[A]
[ "[B]", "[C]", "[D]" ]
[ "[B] Androgen to progesterone", "[C] Progesterone to estrogen", "[D] Estrogen to androgen" ]
[C] Progesterone to estrogen
Choose the correct answer from the options below.
[ { "content": "Aromatase enzyme conves ?\n\n[A] Androgen to estrogen\n[B] Androgen to progesterone\n[C] Progesterone to estrogen\n[D] Estrogen to androgen", "role": "user" }, { "content": "[A] Androgen to estrogen", "role": "assistant" } ]
820bd91f-32fb-4000-9221-aa075bfce1bc
Dental wax pattern should be invested as soon as possible because of danger of: (A) Drying of the wax pattern (B) Distortion due to relaxation of internal stresses (C) Continued expansion of wax (D) Reduction in flow of wax
Distortion due to relaxation of internal stresses
Drying of the wax pattern
Continued expansion of wax
Reduction in flow of wax
0
single
null
Dental
null
(B) Distortion due to relaxation of internal stresses
(A) Drying of the wax pattern (B) Distortion due to relaxation of internal stresses (C) Continued expansion of wax (D) Reduction in flow of wax
(B)
[ "(A)", "(C)", "(D)" ]
[ "(A) Drying of the wax pattern", "(C) Continued expansion of wax", "(D) Reduction in flow of wax" ]
(A) Drying of the wax pattern
Choose the correct answer from the options below.
[ { "content": "Dental wax pattern should be invested as soon as possible because of danger of:\n\n(A) Drying of the wax pattern\n(B) Distortion due to relaxation of internal stresses\n(C) Continued expansion of wax\n(D) Reduction in flow of wax", "role": "user" }, { "content": "(B) Distortion due to ...
f3b6d8cc-1a23-4b27-9405-443f6008ec27
Beta hemihydrate particles absorb I. more water II. none of the above III. no water IV. less water
more water
less water
no water
none of the above
0
multi
null
Dental
null
I. more water
I. more water II. none of the above III. no water IV. less water
I.
[ "II.", "III.", "IV." ]
[ "II. none of the above", "III. no water", "IV. less water" ]
IV. less water
Choose the correct answer from the options below.
[ { "content": "Beta hemihydrate particles absorb\n\nI. more water\nII. none of the above\nIII. no water\nIV. less water", "role": "user" }, { "content": "I. more water", "role": "assistant" } ]
0ad2ed9f-fe0c-42cc-b6ad-bcfebf204160
Small vessel vasculitis includes all of the following EXCEPT? 1. Anti GBM antibody disease 2. IgA vasculitis 3. Takayasu disease 4. Systemic Lupus erythematosus
Anti GBM antibody disease
Takayasu disease
IgA vasculitis
Systemic Lupus erythematosus
1
multi
Takayasu disease- Large vessel vasculitis Anti GBM antibody disease (Goodpasture disease), SLE & IgA vasculitis (Henoch-Schonlein purpura) are examples of small vessel vasculitis
Pediatrics
Vasculitic Disorders in Children
3. Takayasu disease
1. Anti GBM antibody disease 2. IgA vasculitis 3. Takayasu disease 4. Systemic Lupus erythematosus
3.
[ "1.", "2.", "4." ]
[ "1. Anti GBM antibody disease", "2. IgA vasculitis", "4. Systemic Lupus erythematosus" ]
2. IgA vasculitis
Choose the correct answer from the options below.
[ { "content": "Small vessel vasculitis includes all of the following EXCEPT?\n\n1. Anti GBM antibody disease\n2. IgA vasculitis\n3. Takayasu disease\n4. Systemic Lupus erythematosus", "role": "user" }, { "content": "3. Takayasu disease", "role": "assistant" } ]
daf7f74b-64fb-43d2-9c07-911fe27e52d6
Heerfordt's syndrome cosists of fever , parotid enlargement facial palsy (a) Ahralgia (b) Erythema nodosum (c) Anterior uveitis (d) Bilateral hilar adenopathy
Ahralgia
Bilateral hilar adenopathy
Erythema nodosum
Anterior uveitis
3
single
Ref Harrison 18/e p2806 Lofgren's syndrome consists of erythema nodosum, hilar adenopathy on chest x-ray and uveitis Heerfordt's syndrome .: Fever , parotid enlargement , facial palsy , uveitis
Anatomy
General anatomy
(c) Anterior uveitis
(a) Ahralgia (b) Erythema nodosum (c) Anterior uveitis (d) Bilateral hilar adenopathy
(c)
[ "(a)", "(b)", "(d)" ]
[ "(a) Ahralgia", "(b) Erythema nodosum", "(d) Bilateral hilar adenopathy" ]
(a) Ahralgia
Choose the correct answer from the options below.
[ { "content": "Heerfordt's syndrome cosists of fever , parotid enlargement facial palsy\n\n(a) Ahralgia\n(b) Erythema nodosum\n(c) Anterior uveitis\n(d) Bilateral hilar adenopathy", "role": "user" }, { "content": "(c) Anterior uveitis", "role": "assistant" } ]
f8e0fc1a-08e0-41b0-b20c-0a45be4df58f
Foetus starts hearing by what time in intrauterine life: a) 32 weeks b) 33 weeks c) 14 weeks d) 20 weeks
14 weeks
20 weeks
32 weeks
33 weeks
1
single
Formation of cochlea is complete by 20 weeks & a fetus can hear by 20 weeks.
ENT
null
d) 20 weeks
a) 32 weeks b) 33 weeks c) 14 weeks d) 20 weeks
d)
[ "a)", "b)", "c)" ]
[ "a) 32 weeks", "b) 33 weeks", "c) 14 weeks" ]
a) 32 weeks
Choose the correct answer from the options below.
[ { "content": "Foetus starts hearing by what time in intrauterine life:\n\na) 32 weeks\nb) 33 weeks\nc) 14 weeks\nd) 20 weeks", "role": "user" }, { "content": "d) 20 weeks", "role": "assistant" } ]
d47752cc-16ff-4e46-907e-dd40656f9ad9
Chubby cheeks, eyes are blue and staring at the sky is a feature of I. Ectodermal dysplasia II. Cherubism III. Sicca syndrome IV. Fibrous dysplasia
Cherubism
Fibrous dysplasia
Ectodermal dysplasia
Sicca syndrome
0
single
null
Pathology
null
II. Cherubism
I. Ectodermal dysplasia II. Cherubism III. Sicca syndrome IV. Fibrous dysplasia
II.
[ "I.", "III.", "IV." ]
[ "I. Ectodermal dysplasia", "III. Sicca syndrome", "IV. Fibrous dysplasia" ]
I. Ectodermal dysplasia
Choose the correct answer from the options below.
[ { "content": "Chubby cheeks, eyes are blue and staring at the sky is a feature of\n\nI. Ectodermal dysplasia\nII. Cherubism\nIII. Sicca syndrome\nIV. Fibrous dysplasia", "role": "user" }, { "content": "II. Cherubism", "role": "assistant" } ]
685cd88a-d823-48ed-a78f-4d6b065ee25d
Lambda is meeting point of: 1. Coronal and lambdoid suture 2. Sagittal and lambdoid suture 3. Coronal and sagittal suture 4. None of the above
Coronal and sagittal suture
Coronal and lambdoid suture
Sagittal and lambdoid suture
None of the above
2
multi
The lambda is the meeting point between the sagittal and lambdoid sutures. In the foetal skull, this is the site of the posterior fontanelle which closes at two to three months of age.
Anatomy
null
2. Sagittal and lambdoid suture
1. Coronal and lambdoid suture 2. Sagittal and lambdoid suture 3. Coronal and sagittal suture 4. None of the above
2.
[ "1.", "3.", "4." ]
[ "1. Coronal and lambdoid suture", "3. Coronal and sagittal suture", "4. None of the above" ]
4. None of the above
Choose the correct answer from the options below.
[ { "content": "Lambda is meeting point of:\n\n1. Coronal and lambdoid suture\n2. Sagittal and lambdoid suture\n3. Coronal and sagittal suture\n4. None of the above", "role": "user" }, { "content": "2. Sagittal and lambdoid suture", "role": "assistant" } ]
6d8f7caa-5207-4e21-984a-695093d3a776
True about MHC: i. Autoimmune disease ii. All iii. Transplantation reaction iv. Involved in T-cell function
Transplantation reaction
Autoimmune disease
Involved in T-cell function
All
3
multi
A i.e. Transplantation reaction; B i.e. Autommune disease; C i.e. Involved in T -Cell function
Medicine
null
ii. All
i. Autoimmune disease ii. All iii. Transplantation reaction iv. Involved in T-cell function
ii.
[ "i.", "iii.", "iv." ]
[ "i. Autoimmune disease", "iii. Transplantation reaction", "iv. Involved in T-cell function" ]
iv. Involved in T-cell function
Choose the correct answer from the options below.
[ { "content": "True about MHC:\n\ni. Autoimmune disease\nii. All\niii. Transplantation reaction\niv. Involved in T-cell function", "role": "user" }, { "content": "ii. All", "role": "assistant" } ]
cbea8d74-680a-4936-bfd7-d833344f7655
d-Tubocurarine acts by: [a] Inhibiting nicotinic receptors at myoneural junction [b] Inhibiting nicotinic receptors at autonomic ganglion [c] Producing depolarizing block [d] By inhibiting reuptake of acetylcholine
Inhibiting nicotinic receptors at myoneural junction
Inhibiting nicotinic receptors at autonomic ganglion
Producing depolarizing block
By inhibiting reuptake of acetylcholine
0
single
Ans. (A) Inhibiting nicotinic receptors at myoneural junction(Ref: Katzung 10/e p429; KDT 8th/e p374)D-tubocurarine is a skeletal muscle relaxant that acts by competitive inhibition of NM receptors at neuron-muscular junction.
Pharmacology
Anaesthesia
[a] Inhibiting nicotinic receptors at myoneural junction
[a] Inhibiting nicotinic receptors at myoneural junction [b] Inhibiting nicotinic receptors at autonomic ganglion [c] Producing depolarizing block [d] By inhibiting reuptake of acetylcholine
[a]
[ "[b]", "[c]", "[d]" ]
[ "[b] Inhibiting nicotinic receptors at autonomic ganglion", "[c] Producing depolarizing block", "[d] By inhibiting reuptake of acetylcholine" ]
[b] Inhibiting nicotinic receptors at autonomic ganglion
Choose the correct answer from the options below.
[ { "content": "d-Tubocurarine acts by:\n\n[a] Inhibiting nicotinic receptors at myoneural junction\n[b] Inhibiting nicotinic receptors at autonomic ganglion\n[c] Producing depolarizing block\n[d] By inhibiting reuptake of acetylcholine", "role": "user" }, { "content": "[a] Inhibiting nicotinic recept...
e0af318f-ff62-43f4-97d4-2fe927fae223
The most predominant type of polio virus during epidemics is 1) Type I 2) Combined infection of II & III 3) Type II 4) Type III
Type I
Type II
Type III
Combined infection of II & III
0
single
Ans. is 'a' i.e., Type I Poliomyelitis o Poliomyelitis is an acute viral infection caused by poliovirus. o There are three types of polioviruses - Type 1 --> Most common and causes most epidemics Type 2 Type 3 o No serotype - 2 (type -2) poliovirus has been detected anywhere in the world since 1999, type 1 and type 3 h...
Social & Preventive Medicine
null
1) Type I
1) Type I 2) Combined infection of II & III 3) Type II 4) Type III
1)
[ "2)", "3)", "4)" ]
[ "2) Combined infection of II & III", "3) Type II", "4) Type III" ]
3) Type II
Choose the correct answer from the options below.
[ { "content": "The most predominant type of polio virus during epidemics is\n\n1) Type I\n2) Combined infection of II & III\n3) Type II\n4) Type III", "role": "user" }, { "content": "1) Type I", "role": "assistant" } ]
fcd1d493-cbf4-4956-9225-f5c9ca14d5b3
Ameloblasts are derived from: i. Outer enamel epithelium. ii. Inner enamel epithelium. iii. Reduced enamel epithelium. iv. All of the above.
Inner enamel epithelium.
Outer enamel epithelium.
Reduced enamel epithelium.
All of the above.
0
multi
Enamel organ is derived from the inner enamel epithelium of the enamel organ.
Dental
null
ii. Inner enamel epithelium.
i. Outer enamel epithelium. ii. Inner enamel epithelium. iii. Reduced enamel epithelium. iv. All of the above.
ii.
[ "i.", "iii.", "iv." ]
[ "i. Outer enamel epithelium.", "iii. Reduced enamel epithelium.", "iv. All of the above." ]
iii. Reduced enamel epithelium.
Choose the correct answer from the options below.
[ { "content": "Ameloblasts are derived from:\n\ni. Outer enamel epithelium.\nii. Inner enamel epithelium.\niii. Reduced enamel epithelium.\niv. All of the above.", "role": "user" }, { "content": "ii. Inner enamel epithelium.", "role": "assistant" } ]
5d63b057-7718-4e0f-be49-f0b5f31ccdda
Amount of blood in heart: 1) 500-600 ml 2) 1-2 litre 3) 250-300 ml 4) 100-200 ml
250-300 ml
500-600 ml
1-2 litre
100-200 ml
1
single
Heart contains 12% of total blood volume; i.e. 12% of 5 Ltr = 600 ml.
Physiology
null
1) 500-600 ml
1) 500-600 ml 2) 1-2 litre 3) 250-300 ml 4) 100-200 ml
1)
[ "2)", "3)", "4)" ]
[ "2) 1-2 litre", "3) 250-300 ml", "4) 100-200 ml" ]
4) 100-200 ml
Choose the correct answer from the options below.
[ { "content": "Amount of blood in heart:\n\n1) 500-600 ml\n2) 1-2 litre\n3) 250-300 ml\n4) 100-200 ml", "role": "user" }, { "content": "1) 500-600 ml", "role": "assistant" } ]
b701de85-c51e-4735-a159-11e4d811582a
A patient develops an infection of methicillin-resistant Staphylococcus aureus. All of the following can be used to treat this infection except : 1) Cefaclor 2) Vancomycin 3) Cotrimoxazole 4) Ciprofloxacin
Cotrimoxazole
Cefaclor
Ciprofloxacin
Vancomycin
1
multi
null
Pharmacology
null
1) Cefaclor
1) Cefaclor 2) Vancomycin 3) Cotrimoxazole 4) Ciprofloxacin
1)
[ "2)", "3)", "4)" ]
[ "2) Vancomycin", "3) Cotrimoxazole", "4) Ciprofloxacin" ]
4) Ciprofloxacin
Choose the correct answer from the options below.
[ { "content": "A patient develops an infection of methicillin-resistant Staphylococcus aureus. All of the following can be used to treat this infection except :\n\n1) Cefaclor\n2) Vancomycin\n3) Cotrimoxazole\n4) Ciprofloxacin", "role": "user" }, { "content": "1) Cefaclor", "role": "assistant" ...
44d41c08-60f5-473f-bc3f-b5f15ccf7d13
"Hypopyon sign" is seen in (1) Impetigo contagiosa (2) Botryomycosis (3) Ecthyma gangreonosum (4) Bullous impetigo
Impetigo contagiosa
Bullous impetigo
Ecthyma gangreonosum
Botryomycosis
1
single
Bullous impetigo is caused by Staphylococcus.aureus characterized by skin blisters. Pus in the skin blisters settle down and this is called as "Hypopyon sign"
Dental
null
(4) Bullous impetigo
(1) Impetigo contagiosa (2) Botryomycosis (3) Ecthyma gangreonosum (4) Bullous impetigo
(4)
[ "(1)", "(2)", "(3)" ]
[ "(1) Impetigo contagiosa", "(2) Botryomycosis", "(3) Ecthyma gangreonosum" ]
(2) Botryomycosis
Choose the correct answer from the options below.
[ { "content": "\"Hypopyon sign\" is seen in\n\n(1) Impetigo contagiosa\n(2) Botryomycosis\n(3) Ecthyma gangreonosum\n(4) Bullous impetigo", "role": "user" }, { "content": "(4) Bullous impetigo", "role": "assistant" } ]
8611211a-20de-43a0-ad7f-b346655e48b1
In standing position, Venous return to hea from lower limbs is affected by all of the following except: [A] Deep fascia [B] Competant valves [C] Aerial pressure [D] Contraction of calf muscles
Competant valves
Deep fascia
Aerial pressure
Contraction of calf muscles
2
multi
Aerial pressure Factors affecting venous return from lower limbs:a. Muscle contraction- Venous return from lower limb depends largely on muscular activity, especially contraction of the calf muscles, known as the 'calf pump'II Deep fascia - Efficiency of muscular pump is aided by the tight sleeve of deep fascia (deep f...
Anatomy
null
[C] Aerial pressure
[A] Deep fascia [B] Competant valves [C] Aerial pressure [D] Contraction of calf muscles
[C]
[ "[A]", "[B]", "[D]" ]
[ "[A] Deep fascia", "[B] Competant valves", "[D] Contraction of calf muscles" ]
[A] Deep fascia
Choose the correct answer from the options below.
[ { "content": "In standing position, Venous return to hea from lower limbs is affected by all of the following except:\n\n[A] Deep fascia\n[B] Competant valves\n[C] Aerial pressure\n[D] Contraction of calf muscles", "role": "user" }, { "content": "[C] Aerial pressure", "role": "assistant" } ]
fa0aad7f-16a8-4459-a7e0-1e451da8c5e3
All are seen in hypersplenism except: [A] Hypocellular bone marrow [B] Splenomegaly [C] Anemia [D] Thrombocytopenia
Anemia
Thrombocytopenia
Splenomegaly
Hypocellular bone marrow
3
multi
Ans. (d) Hypocellular bone marrowRef: Sabiston 19/e p 1553-1554Hypersplenism:* Spleen Enlargement+Decrease in Cell count in more than one cell line (Anemia, thrombocytopenia, leucopenia) is known as hyper splenism* Important feature on Bone marrow study is there will be Hyper plasia and immediate improvement of blood c...
Surgery
Spleen
[A] Hypocellular bone marrow
[A] Hypocellular bone marrow [B] Splenomegaly [C] Anemia [D] Thrombocytopenia
[A]
[ "[B]", "[C]", "[D]" ]
[ "[B] Splenomegaly", "[C] Anemia", "[D] Thrombocytopenia" ]
[B] Splenomegaly
Choose the correct answer from the options below.
[ { "content": "All are seen in hypersplenism except:\n\n[A] Hypocellular bone marrow\n[B] Splenomegaly\n[C] Anemia\n[D] Thrombocytopenia", "role": "user" }, { "content": "[A] Hypocellular bone marrow", "role": "assistant" } ]
68e2c253-0b9b-42d4-a8f9-2f5c5de9de6e
A patient of pulmonary tuberculosis was put on anti-tuberculosis therapy. He was given Rifampicin, INH, Ethambutol and Pyrazinamide He should be advised to have a supplement of A. Niacin B. Thiamine C. Riboflavin D. Pyridoxine
Niacin
Riboflavin
Pyridoxine
Thiamine
2
single
null
Social & Preventive Medicine
null
D. Pyridoxine
A. Niacin B. Thiamine C. Riboflavin D. Pyridoxine
D.
[ "A.", "B.", "C." ]
[ "A. Niacin", "B. Thiamine", "C. Riboflavin" ]
B. Thiamine
Choose the correct answer from the options below.
[ { "content": "A patient of pulmonary tuberculosis was put on anti-tuberculosis therapy. He was given Rifampicin, INH, Ethambutol and Pyrazinamide He should be advised to have a supplement of\n\nA. Niacin\nB. Thiamine\nC. Riboflavin\nD. Pyridoxine", "role": "user" }, { "content": "D. Pyridoxine", ...
0b9a55e0-5cef-4aee-8bcf-fdb65e94c262
An infant presents with the condition as shown below after a pharyngeal infection. The shown condition is: [a] Pemphigus foliaceus [b] Staphylococcal scalded skin syndrome [c] Epidermolysis bullosa simplex [d] Impetigo contagiosa
Staphylococcal scalded skin syndrome
Epidermolysis bullosa simplex
Impetigo contagiosa
Pemphigus foliaceus
0
single
SSSS/ Pemphigus Neonatorum / Ritter's disease: - Caused by: Staph. aureus - Seen in neonates and infants - Usually follows pharyngeal infection. - Staph. aureus releases Exfoliative toxins A & B that destroys Desmoglein 1 - Mucosal involvement absent - Epidermal separation occurs superficially. - Nikolsky sign positive...
Dental
Bacterial infections
[b] Staphylococcal scalded skin syndrome
[a] Pemphigus foliaceus [b] Staphylococcal scalded skin syndrome [c] Epidermolysis bullosa simplex [d] Impetigo contagiosa
[b]
[ "[a]", "[c]", "[d]" ]
[ "[a] Pemphigus foliaceus", "[c] Epidermolysis bullosa simplex", "[d] Impetigo contagiosa" ]
[a] Pemphigus foliaceus
Choose the correct answer from the options below.
[ { "content": "An infant presents with the condition as shown below after a pharyngeal infection. The shown condition is:\n\n[a] Pemphigus foliaceus\n[b] Staphylococcal scalded skin syndrome\n[c] Epidermolysis bullosa simplex\n[d] Impetigo contagiosa", "role": "user" }, { "content": "[b] Staphylococc...
0d82eb9a-f032-429f-9024-56a0cbe2fdf3
A 25-year-old G1P0 woman delivers a 4000 g infant, and encounters a shoulder dystocia. Which of the following is a risk factor for this condition (A) Precipitous (fast) labor (B) Fetal prematurity (C) Fetal hydrocephalus (D) Maternal gestational diabetes
Fetal hydrocephalus
Fetal prematurity
Precipitous (fast) labor
Maternal gestational diabetes
3
single
Gestational diabetes is a risk factor because the fetal shoulders and abdomen are dispropoionately bigger than the head, therefore the head may pass through with no problems, yet it is quite difficult to deliver the anterior shoulder since it is lodged behind the maternal symphysis pubis. The McRobes maneuver and appli...
Gynaecology & Obstetrics
Anatomy of the female genital tract
(D) Maternal gestational diabetes
(A) Precipitous (fast) labor (B) Fetal prematurity (C) Fetal hydrocephalus (D) Maternal gestational diabetes
(D)
[ "(A)", "(B)", "(C)" ]
[ "(A) Precipitous (fast) labor", "(B) Fetal prematurity", "(C) Fetal hydrocephalus" ]
(C) Fetal hydrocephalus
Choose the correct answer from the options below.
[ { "content": "A 25-year-old G1P0 woman delivers a 4000 g infant, and encounters a shoulder dystocia. Which of the following is a risk factor for this condition\n\n(A) Precipitous (fast) labor\n(B) Fetal prematurity\n(C) Fetal hydrocephalus\n(D) Maternal gestational diabetes", "role": "user" }, { "co...
f6658e16-ded3-42e5-a544-d72c21345768
All of the following are risk factors for increased lactic acidosis in patients on metformin therapy except [A] Liver dysfunction [B] Renal dysfunction [C] Advanced age [D] Smoking
Advanced age
Liver dysfunction
Renal dysfunction
Smoking
3
multi
Metformin can result in lactic acidosis and the risk factors includes old age,renal and liver insufficiency, alcoholics. Smoking is not a risk factor.
Pharmacology
null
[D] Smoking
[A] Liver dysfunction [B] Renal dysfunction [C] Advanced age [D] Smoking
[D]
[ "[A]", "[B]", "[C]" ]
[ "[A] Liver dysfunction", "[B] Renal dysfunction", "[C] Advanced age" ]
[C] Advanced age
Choose the correct answer from the options below.
[ { "content": "All of the following are risk factors for increased lactic acidosis in patients on metformin therapy except\n\n[A] Liver dysfunction\n[B] Renal dysfunction\n[C] Advanced age\n[D] Smoking", "role": "user" }, { "content": "[D] Smoking", "role": "assistant" } ]
b97468d2-3021-4443-9c65-b5815a6334c1
A 25 year old lady presented with sadness, palpitation, loss of appetite and insomnia. There is no complaint of hopelessness, suicidal thoughts and there is no past history of any precipitating event. She is remarkably well in other areas of life. She is doing her office job normally and her social life is also normal....
GAD
Mixed anxiety depression
Adjustment disorder
Mild depressive episode
0
multi
The features mentioned in the question are insufficient to fulfill the diagnostic criteria for any of the provided options. Generalized anxiety disorder is the single best answer by exclusion since the patient is presenting with generalized features of anxiety - like palpitations, insomnia, and loss of appetite without...
Psychiatry
null
2. GAD
1. Adjustment disorder 2. GAD 3. Mild depressive episode 4. Mixed anxiety depression
2.
[ "1.", "3.", "4." ]
[ "1. Adjustment disorder", "3. Mild depressive episode", "4. Mixed anxiety depression" ]
3. Mild depressive episode
Choose the correct answer from the options below.
[ { "content": "A 25 year old lady presented with sadness, palpitation, loss of appetite and insomnia. There is no complaint of hopelessness, suicidal thoughts and there is no past history of any precipitating event. She is remarkably well in other areas of life. She is doing her office job normally and her socia...
1d62bde4-77af-45c3-9d1b-7b55f0284417
Diagnosis A) Junctional B) Nevus of Ota C) Nevus of Ito D) Congenital melanocytic nevus
Congenital melanocytic nevus
Junctional
Nevus of Ito
Nevus of Ota
3
single
The image is suggestive of "Nevus of Ota" which is a dermal melanocytic nevus seen in maxillary and ophthalmic nerve distribution. It is usually unilateral and often associated with blue sclera and conjuctiva.
Dental
null
B) Nevus of Ota
A) Junctional B) Nevus of Ota C) Nevus of Ito D) Congenital melanocytic nevus
B)
[ "A)", "C)", "D)" ]
[ "A) Junctional", "C) Nevus of Ito", "D) Congenital melanocytic nevus" ]
D) Congenital melanocytic nevus
Choose the correct answer from the options below.
[ { "content": "Diagnosis\n\nA) Junctional\nB) Nevus of Ota\nC) Nevus of Ito\nD) Congenital melanocytic nevus", "role": "user" }, { "content": "B) Nevus of Ota", "role": "assistant" } ]
4d3ba45b-14b1-4a0f-af36-8c7493098998
Bajaj committee, true is - 1) None 2) Constituted in 1946 3) Recommends health manpower policy 4) Recommends formation of PHC
Constituted in 1946
Recommends formation of PHC
Recommends health manpower policy
None
2
multi
Ans. is 'c' i.e., Recommends health manpower policyBaiai committeeo An "expert committee for healthpower planning, production and management" was constituted in 1985 under Dr. J.S. Bajaj. Major recommendations are :-Formulation of National medical & health education policy.Formulation of national health manpower policy...
Social & Preventive Medicine
Health Planning and Management
3) Recommends health manpower policy
1) None 2) Constituted in 1946 3) Recommends health manpower policy 4) Recommends formation of PHC
3)
[ "1)", "2)", "4)" ]
[ "1) None", "2) Constituted in 1946", "4) Recommends formation of PHC" ]
4) Recommends formation of PHC
Choose the correct answer from the options below.
[ { "content": "Bajaj committee, true is -\n\n1) None\n2) Constituted in 1946\n3) Recommends health manpower policy\n4) Recommends formation of PHC", "role": "user" }, { "content": "3) Recommends health manpower policy", "role": "assistant" } ]
517e93a6-cde0-4d6b-bd9c-00d1de817f8b
The highest point of iliac crest is at the level of: [a] L4-5 [b] L5-51 [c] L3-4 [d] SI-2
L3-4
L5-51
L4-5
SI-2
0
single
L3-4
Anatomy
null
[c] L3-4
[a] L4-5 [b] L5-51 [c] L3-4 [d] SI-2
[c]
[ "[a]", "[b]", "[d]" ]
[ "[a] L4-5", "[b] L5-51", "[d] SI-2" ]
[b] L5-51
Choose the correct answer from the options below.
[ { "content": "The highest point of iliac crest is at the level of:\n\n[a] L4-5\n[b] L5-51\n[c] L3-4\n[d] SI-2", "role": "user" }, { "content": "[c] L3-4", "role": "assistant" } ]
367880e4-a782-47cb-917a-092edc4611d0
Attenuated retinal vessels with bony corpuscular like lesion seen in – a. Diabetes mellitus b. Hypertension c. Eales disease d. Retinitis pigmentosa
Diabetes mellitus
Hypertension
Retinitis pigmentosa
Eales disease
2
single
Attenuated & thread like retinal vessels and retinal pigmentary changes (Bone spicule intraneural retinal pigmentation) is seen in retinitis pigmentosa.
Ophthalmology
null
d. Retinitis pigmentosa
a. Diabetes mellitus b. Hypertension c. Eales disease d. Retinitis pigmentosa
d.
[ "a.", "b.", "c." ]
[ "a. Diabetes mellitus", "b. Hypertension", "c. Eales disease" ]
c. Eales disease
Choose the correct answer from the options below.
[ { "content": "Attenuated retinal vessels with bony corpuscular like lesion seen in –\n\na. Diabetes mellitus\nb. Hypertension\nc. Eales disease\nd. Retinitis pigmentosa", "role": "user" }, { "content": "d. Retinitis pigmentosa", "role": "assistant" } ]
885074dd-0459-4972-b8ed-87526d51c825
Negri bodies are characteristic of a) Measles b) Rabies c) HIV/AIDS d) Tetanus
Measles
Tetanus
HIV/AIDS
Rabies
3
single
Negri bodies are the inclusion bodies of the rabies virus formed in brain cells most commonly found in cerebellum (purkinje cells). Inclusion bodies are nuclear or cytoplasmic aggregates of stable substances, usually proteins. They typically represent sites of viral multiplication in a bacterium or a eukaryotic cell an...
Microbiology
Virology Pa-2 (RNA Virus Pa-1,2 & Miscellaneous Viruses)
b) Rabies
a) Measles b) Rabies c) HIV/AIDS d) Tetanus
b)
[ "a)", "c)", "d)" ]
[ "a) Measles", "c) HIV/AIDS", "d) Tetanus" ]
a) Measles
Choose the correct answer from the options below.
[ { "content": "Negri bodies are characteristic of\n\na) Measles\nb) Rabies\nc) HIV/AIDS\nd) Tetanus", "role": "user" }, { "content": "b) Rabies", "role": "assistant" } ]
0630b95d-2a9c-4140-909c-fc42a63a8f74
A 42-year-old woman presents with brown papules located around her eyes and on the malar cheeks. Several of her aunts were similarly affected at the same age. She would like them removed. Which of the following treatments is most likely to cause hypopigmentation? [a] Snip excision [b] Low voltage hyfrecation [c] Liqui...
Liquid nitrogen
Low voltage hyfrecation
Keratolytic moisturizer
Snip excision
2
single
Lesions appear to be was. Electrosurgical diathermy (cold cautery; hyfrecation) TOC for was. No hypopigmentation known. Keratolytics : Most commonly used keratolytics are salicylic acid and benzoyl peroxide. These can cause hypopigmentation. T/t of was with liquid nitrogen may be painful. There is a potential for scarr...
Dental
Viral infections
[d] Keratolytic moisturizer
[a] Snip excision [b] Low voltage hyfrecation [c] Liquid nitrogen [d] Keratolytic moisturizer
[d]
[ "[a]", "[b]", "[c]" ]
[ "[a] Snip excision", "[b] Low voltage hyfrecation", "[c] Liquid nitrogen" ]
[a] Snip excision
Choose the correct answer from the options below.
[ { "content": "A 42-year-old woman presents with brown papules located around her eyes and on the malar cheeks. Several of her aunts were similarly affected at the same age. She would like them removed. Which of the following treatments is most likely to cause hypopigmentation?\n\n[a] Snip excision\n[b] Low volt...
cbbb5d09-0619-4cfa-b256-eade163b8402
All the following drugs can cross placenta EXCEPT: I. Heparin II. Morphine III. Phenytoin IV. Diazepam
Phenytoin
Diazepam
Morphine
Heparin
3
multi
null
Pharmacology
null
I. Heparin
I. Heparin II. Morphine III. Phenytoin IV. Diazepam
I.
[ "II.", "III.", "IV." ]
[ "II. Morphine", "III. Phenytoin", "IV. Diazepam" ]
IV. Diazepam
Choose the correct answer from the options below.
[ { "content": "All the following drugs can cross placenta EXCEPT:\n\nI. Heparin\nII. Morphine\nIII. Phenytoin\nIV. Diazepam", "role": "user" }, { "content": "I. Heparin", "role": "assistant" } ]
b6f0a9bc-0f48-4dd0-97b2-95a116771516
A young patient with dysphagia more for liquids than solids. He regurgitates food often at night. Radiography shows a rat tailed appearance. Likely diagnosis is : A) Achlasia cardia B) CA oesophagus C) Zenker's diveiculum D) Diffuse esophageal spasm
Achlasia cardia
CA oesophagus
Zenker's diveiculum
Diffuse esophageal spasm
0
single
Answer is A (Achlasia cardia) Presence of dysphagia which is more for liquids than for solids along with a characteristic rat tail appearance on radiography in a young patient suggests the diagnosis of aehalasia. Malignancy (CA esophagus) usually presents with dysphagia which is more for solids than for liquids and is ...
Medicine
null
A) Achlasia cardia
A) Achlasia cardia B) CA oesophagus C) Zenker's diveiculum D) Diffuse esophageal spasm
A)
[ "B)", "C)", "D)" ]
[ "B) CA oesophagus", "C) Zenker's diveiculum", "D) Diffuse esophageal spasm" ]
C) Zenker's diveiculum
Choose the correct answer from the options below.
[ { "content": "A young patient with dysphagia more for liquids than solids. He regurgitates food often at night. Radiography shows a rat tailed appearance. Likely diagnosis is :\n\nA) Achlasia cardia\nB) CA oesophagus\nC) Zenker's diveiculum\nD) Diffuse esophageal spasm", "role": "user" }, { "content...
63bec3f1-5311-461d-a3ad-95e9785ec228
A 21-year-old javelin thrower is diagnosed with a full-thickness ulnar collateral ligament (UCL) tear. On presentation, he complains of numbness and tingling in the ring and small fingers. Which muscle group would he be most likely to have motor weakness (1) Brachioradialis (2) Extensor carpi ulnaris (3) Abductor digi...
Brachioradialis
Extensor carpi ulnaris
Abductor digiti minimi
Palmaris longus
2
multi
The patient is experiencing ulnar nerve paresthesias. If the patient had associated motor symptoms, they would manifest as weakness within the abductor digiti minimi. The other answer choices are muscles not innervated by the ulnar nerve.
Orthopaedics
Elbow injuries
(3) Abductor digiti minimi
(1) Brachioradialis (2) Extensor carpi ulnaris (3) Abductor digiti minimi (4) Palmaris longus
(3)
[ "(1)", "(2)", "(4)" ]
[ "(1) Brachioradialis", "(2) Extensor carpi ulnaris", "(4) Palmaris longus" ]
(4) Palmaris longus
Choose the correct answer from the options below.
[ { "content": "A 21-year-old javelin thrower is diagnosed with a full-thickness ulnar collateral ligament (UCL) tear. On presentation, he complains of numbness and tingling in the ring and small fingers. Which muscle group would he be most likely to have motor weakness\n\n(1) Brachioradialis\n(2) Extensor carpi ...
cc455fc2-fcc5-478c-a868-55c192d99058
5 year old child with watery diarrhea for 7 days, on examination, weight = 10 kg, hanging skin folds with normal skin pinch, Sodium in ORS should be - a. 45 meq/Lit b. 90 meq/Lit c. 60 meq/Lit d. 75 meq/Lit
45 meq/Lit
60 meq/Lit
75 meq/Lit
90 meq/Lit
2
single
Ans. is 'c' i.e., 75 meq/Lit
Pediatrics
null
d. 75 meq/Lit
a. 45 meq/Lit b. 90 meq/Lit c. 60 meq/Lit d. 75 meq/Lit
d.
[ "a.", "b.", "c." ]
[ "a. 45 meq/Lit", "b. 90 meq/Lit", "c. 60 meq/Lit" ]
c. 60 meq/Lit
Choose the correct answer from the options below.
[ { "content": "5 year old child with watery diarrhea for 7 days, on examination, weight = 10 kg, hanging skin folds with normal skin pinch, Sodium in ORS should be -\n\na. 45 meq/Lit\nb. 90 meq/Lit\nc. 60 meq/Lit\nd. 75 meq/Lit", "role": "user" }, { "content": "d. 75 meq/Lit", "role": "assistant"...
e8e7d31a-3a44-4436-8f17-c3d1f0e62ac8
Autopsy in a new-born is done by opening first a. Back b. Head c. Abdomen d. Chest
Head
Chest
Abdomen
Back
2
single
- Autopsy in a new-born is done by opening first the abdomen and the highest point of diaphragm is noted
Forensic Medicine
Postmoem techniques
c. Abdomen
a. Back b. Head c. Abdomen d. Chest
c.
[ "a.", "b.", "d." ]
[ "a. Back", "b. Head", "d. Chest" ]
a. Back
Choose the correct answer from the options below.
[ { "content": "Autopsy in a new-born is done by opening first\n\na. Back\nb. Head\nc. Abdomen\nd. Chest", "role": "user" }, { "content": "c. Abdomen", "role": "assistant" } ]
1af7fc5c-21df-451e-bab9-2cdd76a366d3
Moribund patient, triage color ? A. Red B. Green C. Yellow D. Black
Red
Black
Yellow
Green
1
single
Ans. is 'b' i.e., Black Triage When the quantity and severity of injuries overwhelm the operative capacity of health facilities, a different approach to medical treatment must be adopted. The usual principle of first come, first treated", is not followed in mass emergencies. Triage consists of rapidly classifying the i...
Social & Preventive Medicine
null
D. Black
A. Red B. Green C. Yellow D. Black
D.
[ "A.", "B.", "C." ]
[ "A. Red", "B. Green", "C. Yellow" ]
C. Yellow
Choose the correct answer from the options below.
[ { "content": "Moribund patient, triage color ?\n\nA. Red\nB. Green\nC. Yellow\nD. Black", "role": "user" }, { "content": "D. Black", "role": "assistant" } ]
29b6eb2c-71dd-4388-bddb-a19f3218a540
Hill Sach&;s lesion is most commonly seen in [A] Posterior shoulder dislocation [B] Fracture neck of humerus [C] Recurrent shoulder dislocation [D] Anterior shoulder dislocation
Recurrent shoulder dislocation
Posterior shoulder dislocation
Fracture neck of humerus
Anterior shoulder dislocation
0
single
HILL-SACH&;S lesion is most commonly seen in recurent shoulder dislocation. It is a posterolateral defect in the head of the humerus.This is produced due to the impact of posterolateral pa of the head of the humerus against the sharp anteraior margion of the glenoid rim. ref:textbook of ohopedics ,john ebnezar,4th edit...
Orthopaedics
Shoulder and arm injuries
[C] Recurrent shoulder dislocation
[A] Posterior shoulder dislocation [B] Fracture neck of humerus [C] Recurrent shoulder dislocation [D] Anterior shoulder dislocation
[C]
[ "[A]", "[B]", "[D]" ]
[ "[A] Posterior shoulder dislocation", "[B] Fracture neck of humerus", "[D] Anterior shoulder dislocation" ]
[A] Posterior shoulder dislocation
Choose the correct answer from the options below.
[ { "content": "Hill Sach&;s lesion is most commonly seen in\n\n[A] Posterior shoulder dislocation\n[B] Fracture neck of humerus\n[C] Recurrent shoulder dislocation\n[D] Anterior shoulder dislocation", "role": "user" }, { "content": "[C] Recurrent shoulder dislocation", "role": "assistant" } ]
215bd58c-e387-4f71-acfa-fe092b3eb949
Dermoid arises from - A. Pluripotent cell B. Mesoderm C. Ectoderm D. Totipotent cell
Pluripotent cell
Totipotent cell
Ectoderm
Mesoderm
1
single
Dermoids or benign cystic teratomas are derived from the ectodennal differentiation of totipotent cells. Some characteristic features of Dermoids or Benign Cystic teratomas They are a common neoplasm of the ovary with bilaterally seen in 10-15% of cases. Characteristically, they are unilocular cysts containing hair a...
Surgery
null
D. Totipotent cell
A. Pluripotent cell B. Mesoderm C. Ectoderm D. Totipotent cell
D.
[ "A.", "B.", "C." ]
[ "A. Pluripotent cell", "B. Mesoderm", "C. Ectoderm" ]
B. Mesoderm
Choose the correct answer from the options below.
[ { "content": "Dermoid arises from -\n\nA. Pluripotent cell\nB. Mesoderm\nC. Ectoderm\nD. Totipotent cell", "role": "user" }, { "content": "D. Totipotent cell", "role": "assistant" } ]
db974ac8-ebaf-4223-abda-946f7bca43b0
Calcium is stored in a) Terminal cistern b) T tubule c) Golgi apparatus d) Sarcoplasmic reticulum
T tubule
Sarcoplasmic reticulum
Terminal cistern
Golgi apparatus
1
single
Calcium is stored in sarcoplasmic reticulum in the skeletal and cardiac muscles Calcium plays a major role in muscle contraction Ref:Guyton and Hall textbook of medical physiology 12th edition,page number: 85 ,86,87
Physiology
General physiology
d) Sarcoplasmic reticulum
a) Terminal cistern b) T tubule c) Golgi apparatus d) Sarcoplasmic reticulum
d)
[ "a)", "b)", "c)" ]
[ "a) Terminal cistern", "b) T tubule", "c) Golgi apparatus" ]
a) Terminal cistern
Choose the correct answer from the options below.
[ { "content": "Calcium is stored in\n\na) Terminal cistern\nb) T tubule\nc) Golgi apparatus\nd) Sarcoplasmic reticulum", "role": "user" }, { "content": "d) Sarcoplasmic reticulum", "role": "assistant" } ]
530af69b-ee58-4378-96b9-14c7e47e40ad
All of the following are psychedelic drugs except? [1] Cocaine [2] Lysergic acid diethylamide [3] Phencyclidine [4] Mescaline
Lysergic acid diethylamide
Phencyclidine
Cocaine
Mescaline
2
multi
Hallucinogens (Psychotomimetics, psychedelics, psychotogens) are drugs which alter mood, behaviour, thought and perception in a manner similar to that seen in psychosis. These are as: Lysergic acid diethylamide (LSD) Psilocybin Harmine Bufotenin Mescaline (Phenyl alkyl amines) Phencyclidine Lysergic acid amide
Pathology
All India exam
[1] Cocaine
[1] Cocaine [2] Lysergic acid diethylamide [3] Phencyclidine [4] Mescaline
[1]
[ "[2]", "[3]", "[4]" ]
[ "[2] Lysergic acid diethylamide", "[3] Phencyclidine", "[4] Mescaline" ]
[2] Lysergic acid diethylamide
Choose the correct answer from the options below.
[ { "content": "All of the following are psychedelic drugs except?\n\n[1] Cocaine\n[2] Lysergic acid diethylamide\n[3] Phencyclidine\n[4] Mescaline", "role": "user" }, { "content": "[1] Cocaine", "role": "assistant" } ]
debef96b-35e2-4e77-adff-a6c4d261c747
True about body fluid osmolarity ? 1. Major contributor is Na+ 2. ECF osmolarity is 250 mOsm/L 3. Measured by dilution method 4. Major contributor is proteins
Major contributor is proteins
Major contributor is Na+
ECF osmolarity is 250 mOsm/L
Measured by dilution method
1
multi
Ans. is 'b' i.e., Major contributor is Na+
Physiology
null
1. Major contributor is Na+
1. Major contributor is Na+ 2. ECF osmolarity is 250 mOsm/L 3. Measured by dilution method 4. Major contributor is proteins
1.
[ "2.", "3.", "4." ]
[ "2. ECF osmolarity is 250 mOsm/L", "3. Measured by dilution method", "4. Major contributor is proteins" ]
3. Measured by dilution method
Choose the correct answer from the options below.
[ { "content": "True about body fluid osmolarity ?\n\n1. Major contributor is Na+\n2. ECF osmolarity is 250 mOsm/L\n3. Measured by dilution method\n4. Major contributor is proteins", "role": "user" }, { "content": "1. Major contributor is Na+", "role": "assistant" } ]
73f8b2f6-0db0-430f-b323-7152825a669f
All true about conus syndrome except (A) Absent knee and ankle jerks (B) Flexor plantar reflex (C) Begins at the level of lower 3 sacral and coccygeal segment (D) Saddle anaesthesia
Begins at the level of lower 3 sacral and coccygeal segment
Absent knee and ankle jerks
Flexor plantar reflex
Saddle anaesthesia
1
multi
Since the spinal segments involved in knee and ankle jerks are at higher level than the level of lesion, they are preserved.and not lost. Root value of knee reflex is L-2,3 and 4 and for the ankle reflex is S-1 Conus medullary syndrome is lower motor neuron lesion and involves the lower 3 sacral and coccygeal segments ...
Anatomy
Brain
(A) Absent knee and ankle jerks
(A) Absent knee and ankle jerks (B) Flexor plantar reflex (C) Begins at the level of lower 3 sacral and coccygeal segment (D) Saddle anaesthesia
(A)
[ "(B)", "(C)", "(D)" ]
[ "(B) Flexor plantar reflex", "(C) Begins at the level of lower 3 sacral and coccygeal segment", "(D) Saddle anaesthesia" ]
(C) Begins at the level of lower 3 sacral and coccygeal segment
Choose the correct answer from the options below.
[ { "content": "All true about conus syndrome except\n\n(A) Absent knee and ankle jerks\n(B) Flexor plantar reflex\n(C) Begins at the level of lower 3 sacral and coccygeal segment\n(D) Saddle anaesthesia", "role": "user" }, { "content": "(A) Absent knee and ankle jerks", "role": "assistant" } ]
24c0a2e7-67a9-42b6-b810-8fc1ffbb32eb
Mesonephric derivatives are all except (A) Glomerulus (B) Vas deferens (C) Para- oophoron (D) Epididymis
Glomerulus
Para- oophoron
Vas deferens
Epididymis
0
multi
Glomerulus is derived from Mesonephric blastema, Mesonephric duct gives ureteric bud to form the collecting system of kidneys, Wolffian duct give male reproductive system. Ref: Gray's 39e/p-1289
Anatomy
General anatomy
(A) Glomerulus
(A) Glomerulus (B) Vas deferens (C) Para- oophoron (D) Epididymis
(A)
[ "(B)", "(C)", "(D)" ]
[ "(B) Vas deferens", "(C) Para- oophoron", "(D) Epididymis" ]
(C) Para- oophoron
Choose the correct answer from the options below.
[ { "content": "Mesonephric derivatives are all except\n\n(A) Glomerulus\n(B) Vas deferens\n(C) Para- oophoron\n(D) Epididymis", "role": "user" }, { "content": "(A) Glomerulus", "role": "assistant" } ]
5e907f36-a8eb-473b-9120-8432dcb7193b
Immediate reaction after death is: Kerala 08; Punjab 09 (1) Algor mois (2) Pugilistic attitude (3) Rigor mois (4) Cadaveric spasm
Cadaveric spasm
Pugilistic attitude
Rigor mois
Algor mois
0
single
Ans. Cadaveric spasm
Forensic Medicine
null
(4) Cadaveric spasm
(1) Algor mois (2) Pugilistic attitude (3) Rigor mois (4) Cadaveric spasm
(4)
[ "(1)", "(2)", "(3)" ]
[ "(1) Algor mois", "(2) Pugilistic attitude", "(3) Rigor mois" ]
(3) Rigor mois
Choose the correct answer from the options below.
[ { "content": "Immediate reaction after death is: Kerala 08; Punjab 09\n\n(1) Algor mois\n(2) Pugilistic attitude\n(3) Rigor mois\n(4) Cadaveric spasm", "role": "user" }, { "content": "(4) Cadaveric spasm", "role": "assistant" } ]
b88807dd-e588-44bf-9195-f0d599cc734f
Which of the following fungi has not been cultured - (1) Sporothrix (2) Rhinosporidium (3) Blastomyces (4) Acremonium
Sporothrix
Rhinosporidium
Acremonium
Blastomyces
1
single
(B) (Rhinosporidium) (558- C.P. Baveja 4th)* Rhinosoridium seeberi fungus has not been cultured.* Diagnosis depends on the demonstration of sporangia.* Many fungi develop relatively slowly and cultures should be retained for at least 2-3 weeks (in some cases up to 6 weeks before discarded. Yeasts usually grown within 1...
Microbiology
Mycology
(2) Rhinosporidium
(1) Sporothrix (2) Rhinosporidium (3) Blastomyces (4) Acremonium
(2)
[ "(1)", "(3)", "(4)" ]
[ "(1) Sporothrix", "(3) Blastomyces", "(4) Acremonium" ]
(3) Blastomyces
Choose the correct answer from the options below.
[ { "content": "Which of the following fungi has not been cultured -\n\n(1) Sporothrix\n(2) Rhinosporidium\n(3) Blastomyces\n(4) Acremonium", "role": "user" }, { "content": "(2) Rhinosporidium", "role": "assistant" } ]
55add4b5-010e-4693-9a06-aaaa1ca3d1e0
Austin Flint Murmur is commonly mistaken for the murmur of: March 2007 a. Tricuspid stenosis b. Mitral stenosis c. Mitral regurgitation d. Pulmonary regurgitation
Mitral regurgitation
Pulmonary regurgitation
Tricuspid stenosis
Mitral stenosis
3
single
Ans. D: Mitral stenosis
Medicine
null
b. Mitral stenosis
a. Tricuspid stenosis b. Mitral stenosis c. Mitral regurgitation d. Pulmonary regurgitation
b.
[ "a.", "c.", "d." ]
[ "a. Tricuspid stenosis", "c. Mitral regurgitation", "d. Pulmonary regurgitation" ]
d. Pulmonary regurgitation
Choose the correct answer from the options below.
[ { "content": "Austin Flint Murmur is commonly mistaken for the murmur of: March 2007\n\na. Tricuspid stenosis\nb. Mitral stenosis\nc. Mitral regurgitation\nd. Pulmonary regurgitation", "role": "user" }, { "content": "b. Mitral stenosis", "role": "assistant" } ]
feaead08-4721-431d-9dc0-9e3e81a452a2
All are features of renal tubular acidosis type I, except : a. Hypokalemia b. Fanconi syndrome c. Stone in kidney d. No anion gap
Stone in kidney
No anion gap
Hypokalemia
Fanconi syndrome
3
multi
Aswer is D (Fanconi syndrome): Fanconis Syndrome is an entity characterized by defective tubular reabsorption of most amino acids, glucose. urate, phosphate and bicarbonate. Defective tubular absorption of bicarbonate, with failure to transpo hydrogen ions causes a renal tubular acidosis producing hyperchloremic acidos...
Medicine
null
b. Fanconi syndrome
a. Hypokalemia b. Fanconi syndrome c. Stone in kidney d. No anion gap
b.
[ "a.", "c.", "d." ]
[ "a. Hypokalemia", "c. Stone in kidney", "d. No anion gap" ]
d. No anion gap
Choose the correct answer from the options below.
[ { "content": "All are features of renal tubular acidosis type I, except :\n\na. Hypokalemia\nb. Fanconi syndrome\nc. Stone in kidney\nd. No anion gap", "role": "user" }, { "content": "b. Fanconi syndrome", "role": "assistant" } ]
93b0af0a-07db-49f4-9517-903bba8b8499
The function of 8th cranial N. is related to a) Touch b) Balance c) Smell d) Taste
Smell
Taste
Touch
Balance
3
single
Balance The 8th cranial N. or vestibulo cochlear N. has two divisions:Cochlear division -4 concerned with hearingVestibular division concerned with equilibrium & balance
Anatomy
null
b) Balance
a) Touch b) Balance c) Smell d) Taste
b)
[ "a)", "c)", "d)" ]
[ "a) Touch", "c) Smell", "d) Taste" ]
d) Taste
Choose the correct answer from the options below.
[ { "content": "The function of 8th cranial N. is related to\n\na) Touch\nb) Balance\nc) Smell\nd) Taste", "role": "user" }, { "content": "b) Balance", "role": "assistant" } ]
eba0c4fc-64fc-457d-aad7-33b73302875d
Malignant hypehermia is a rare complication following the administration of Not a complication of epidural anesthesia 1) Headache 2) DIC 3) Hematoma 4) Hypotension
Headache
Hypotension
DIC
Hematoma
2
single
DIC
Anaesthesia
null
2) DIC
1) Headache 2) DIC 3) Hematoma 4) Hypotension
2)
[ "1)", "3)", "4)" ]
[ "1) Headache", "3) Hematoma", "4) Hypotension" ]
3) Hematoma
Choose the correct answer from the options below.
[ { "content": "Malignant hypehermia is a rare complication following the administration of Not a complication of epidural anesthesia\n\n1) Headache\n2) DIC\n3) Hematoma\n4) Hypotension", "role": "user" }, { "content": "2) DIC", "role": "assistant" } ]
bed9ce5b-0f88-4d82-96f4-845acaed1cd6
True about subcutaneous nodules in rheumatic fever a. Present in flexor surfaces b. Most common manifestation c. Associated with ahritis d. Non tender
Non tender
Most common manifestation
Present in flexor surfaces
Associated with ahritis
0
multi
Ref Harrison 19 th ed pg 2152 Subcutaneous nodules occur as painless, small (0.5-2 cm), mobile lumps beneath the skin overlying bony prominences, paicularly of the hands, feet, elbows, occiput, and occasionally the veebrae. They are a delayed manifestation, appearing 2-3 weeks after the onset of disease, last for just ...
Anatomy
General anatomy
d. Non tender
a. Present in flexor surfaces b. Most common manifestation c. Associated with ahritis d. Non tender
d.
[ "a.", "b.", "c." ]
[ "a. Present in flexor surfaces", "b. Most common manifestation", "c. Associated with ahritis" ]
b. Most common manifestation
Choose the correct answer from the options below.
[ { "content": "True about subcutaneous nodules in rheumatic fever\n\na. Present in flexor surfaces\nb. Most common manifestation\nc. Associated with ahritis\nd. Non tender", "role": "user" }, { "content": "d. Non tender", "role": "assistant" } ]
a3172b80-1486-4717-a0e9-9b7df5d63e67
Which one of the following inherited conditions causes direct hyperbilirubinemia? A) Type II Crigler-Najjar syndrome B) Gilbert syndrome C) Rotor syndrome D) Type I Crigler-Najjar syndrome
Gilbert syndrome
Type II Crigler-Najjar syndrome
Rotor syndrome
Type I Crigler-Najjar syndrome
2
single
C. Rotor syndrome(Ref: Nelson's 20/e p 1937-1939)Disorders of bilirubin metabolismType of bilirubin elevatedDiseasesUnconjugated HyperbilirubinemiaCrigler-Najjar syndrome Types I and II (UDP GT gene mutation) Gilbert disease (UPD GT polymorphism)Conjugated HyperbilirubinemiaDubin-Johnson syndrome (multiple drug-resista...
Pediatrics
Gastro Intestinal System
C) Rotor syndrome
A) Type II Crigler-Najjar syndrome B) Gilbert syndrome C) Rotor syndrome D) Type I Crigler-Najjar syndrome
C)
[ "A)", "B)", "D)" ]
[ "A) Type II Crigler-Najjar syndrome", "B) Gilbert syndrome", "D) Type I Crigler-Najjar syndrome" ]
B) Gilbert syndrome
Choose the correct answer from the options below.
[ { "content": "Which one of the following inherited conditions causes direct hyperbilirubinemia?\n\nA) Type II Crigler-Najjar syndrome\nB) Gilbert syndrome\nC) Rotor syndrome\nD) Type I Crigler-Najjar syndrome", "role": "user" }, { "content": "C) Rotor syndrome", "role": "assistant" } ]
ad6bb6d8-6756-4465-a322-5e28132b561a
Enamel hypo-calcification and hypo-maturation of tooth is seen in: 1. Turner tooth 2. Dentinogenesis imperfecta 3. Tricho-dento-osseous syndrome 4. Osteogenesis imperfecta
Osteogenesis imperfecta
Dentinogenesis imperfecta
Tricho-dento-osseous syndrome
Turner tooth
2
single
Tricho-Dento-Osseous Syndrome  The tricho-dento-osseous (TOP) syndrome is a hereditary condition, which chiefly involves the hair, teeth, and bones. The condition is inherited as an autosomal dominant disorder and the mutations are mapped to the DLX gene located at chromosome 17q21.3-q22. DLX gene plays a role in the d...
Pathology
null
3. Tricho-dento-osseous syndrome
1. Turner tooth 2. Dentinogenesis imperfecta 3. Tricho-dento-osseous syndrome 4. Osteogenesis imperfecta
3.
[ "1.", "2.", "4." ]
[ "1. Turner tooth", "2. Dentinogenesis imperfecta", "4. Osteogenesis imperfecta" ]
2. Dentinogenesis imperfecta
Choose the correct answer from the options below.
[ { "content": "Enamel hypo-calcification and hypo-maturation of tooth is seen in:\n\n1. Turner tooth\n2. Dentinogenesis imperfecta\n3. Tricho-dento-osseous syndrome\n4. Osteogenesis imperfecta", "role": "user" }, { "content": "3. Tricho-dento-osseous syndrome", "role": "assistant" } ]
2ae43c2a-275d-408b-afe5-bf6527bb58a5
Preload is determined by - i. Enddiastolic volume ii. None of the above iii. Ventricular ejection volume iv. Endsystolic volume
Enddiastolic volume
Endsystolic volume
Ventricular ejection volume
None of the above
0
multi
Ans. is 'a' i.e., Enddiastolic volume Factors affecting cardiac outputo Cardiac output is the product of stroke volume and heart rate. Hence any factor which affects either the stroke volume or the heart rate or both affects the cardiac output.A) Factors affecting stroke volume# Stroke volume, which is the amount of bl...
Physiology
Circulation: Cardiac Output, Venous Return
i. Enddiastolic volume
i. Enddiastolic volume ii. None of the above iii. Ventricular ejection volume iv. Endsystolic volume
i.
[ "ii.", "iii.", "iv." ]
[ "ii. None of the above", "iii. Ventricular ejection volume", "iv. Endsystolic volume" ]
iv. Endsystolic volume
Choose the correct answer from the options below.
[ { "content": "Preload is determined by -\n\ni. Enddiastolic volume\nii. None of the above\niii. Ventricular ejection volume\niv. Endsystolic volume", "role": "user" }, { "content": "i. Enddiastolic volume", "role": "assistant" } ]
fed98c6e-34f1-4207-819e-ae626f13bf44
Prostaglandin derivatives are used in following conditions, except: a) As an aboifacient b) As an aboifacient c) As an aboifacient d) Cervical ripening
Cervical ripening
As an aboifacient
As an aboifacient
As an aboifacient
3
multi
As an aboifacient
Pharmacology
null
a) As an aboifacient
a) As an aboifacient b) As an aboifacient c) As an aboifacient d) Cervical ripening
a)
[ "b)", "c)", "d)" ]
[ "b) As an aboifacient", "c) As an aboifacient", "d) Cervical ripening" ]
c) As an aboifacient
Choose the correct answer from the options below.
[ { "content": "Prostaglandin derivatives are used in following conditions, except:\n\na) As an aboifacient\nb) As an aboifacient\nc) As an aboifacient\nd) Cervical ripening", "role": "user" }, { "content": "a) As an aboifacient", "role": "assistant" } ]
0c48b290-331e-4775-ad2e-71cb17abcdfd
Which of the following metal ions is associated with secondary Parkinsonisms: a. Mangnese (Mn) b. Selenium (Se) c. Magnesium (Mg) d. Molybednum (Me)
Mangnese (Mn)
Magnesium (Mg)
Selenium (Se)
Molybednum (Me)
0
single
Answer is A (Mangnese (Mn)): Manganese ion exposure is implicated in the free radical damage of the basal ganglia causing Parkinsonism. Toxins Implicated in Parkinsonism (Harrison) Manganese (Mn) MPTP (1 Methyl - > Phenyl -1, 2, 3, 6 tetrahydropyridine) Carbonmonoxide Carbondisulphide Ctanide Hexane Methanol Toxins rep...
Medicine
null
a. Mangnese (Mn)
a. Mangnese (Mn) b. Selenium (Se) c. Magnesium (Mg) d. Molybednum (Me)
a.
[ "b.", "c.", "d." ]
[ "b. Selenium (Se)", "c. Magnesium (Mg)", "d. Molybednum (Me)" ]
d. Molybednum (Me)
Choose the correct answer from the options below.
[ { "content": "Which of the following metal ions is associated with secondary Parkinsonisms:\n\na. Mangnese (Mn)\nb. Selenium (Se)\nc. Magnesium (Mg)\nd. Molybednum (Me)", "role": "user" }, { "content": "a. Mangnese (Mn)", "role": "assistant" } ]
f148be68-a81f-4110-bbcc-0b6a434045c1
A 37-year-old woman undergoes a routine breast examination. During the examination, the physician is aware that the skin of the breast moves together with the underlying breast tissue, rather than being obviously separate from it. The breast tissue is normally attached to the overlying skin which of the following? 1) ...
Cooper's ligaments
Cruciate ligaments
Falciform ligament
Poupa's ligaments
0
multi
The suspensory ligaments of Cooper are fibrous condensations of connective tissue stroma that attach the mammary gland to the dermis of the overlying skin. These are paicularly prominent in the superior aspect of the breast, and help to suppo the breast tissue. The cruciate ligaments are in the knee. The falciform liga...
Gynaecology & Obstetrics
null
1) Cooper's ligaments
1) Cooper's ligaments 2) Cruciate ligaments 3) Falciform ligament 4) Poupa's ligaments
1)
[ "2)", "3)", "4)" ]
[ "2) Cruciate ligaments", "3) Falciform ligament", "4) Poupa's ligaments" ]
2) Cruciate ligaments
Choose the correct answer from the options below.
[ { "content": "A 37-year-old woman undergoes a routine breast examination. During the examination, the physician is aware that the skin of the breast moves together with the underlying breast tissue, rather than being obviously separate from it. The breast tissue is normally attached to the overlying skin which ...
600467aa-d832-4f81-b331-d335e8fe45a7
Squeeze technique is used for [1] Erectile dysfunction [2] Antegrade ejaculation [3] Retrograde ejaculation [4] Premature ejaculation
Erectile dysfunction
Premature ejaculation
Retrograde ejaculation
Antegrade ejaculation
1
single
(B) Premature Ejaculation[?]Specific Techniques & Exercises:Various techniques useful to treat various sexual dysfunctions.In Premature Ejaculation, useful exercise known as the squeeze technique is used to raise the threshold of penile excitability.Man or the woman stimulates the erect penis until the earliest sensati...
Psychiatry
Sexual Disorders
[4] Premature ejaculation
[1] Erectile dysfunction [2] Antegrade ejaculation [3] Retrograde ejaculation [4] Premature ejaculation
[4]
[ "[1]", "[2]", "[3]" ]
[ "[1] Erectile dysfunction", "[2] Antegrade ejaculation", "[3] Retrograde ejaculation" ]
[3] Retrograde ejaculation
Choose the correct answer from the options below.
[ { "content": "Squeeze technique is used for\n\n[1] Erectile dysfunction\n[2] Antegrade ejaculation\n[3] Retrograde ejaculation\n[4] Premature ejaculation", "role": "user" }, { "content": "[4] Premature ejaculation", "role": "assistant" } ]
5a3bb3fe-2975-439e-822e-d35c8c9e3dae
Exsanguinating blood loss in? i. Closed humerus fracture ii. Open humerus fracture iii. Open femur fracture iv. Closed tibia fracture
Closed humerus fracture
Closed tibia fracture
Open femur fracture
Open humerus fracture
2
single
Ans. is 'c' i.e., Open femur fracture
Surgery
null
iii. Open femur fracture
i. Closed humerus fracture ii. Open humerus fracture iii. Open femur fracture iv. Closed tibia fracture
iii.
[ "i.", "ii.", "iv." ]
[ "i. Closed humerus fracture", "ii. Open humerus fracture", "iv. Closed tibia fracture" ]
i. Closed humerus fracture
Choose the correct answer from the options below.
[ { "content": "Exsanguinating blood loss in?\n\ni. Closed humerus fracture\nii. Open humerus fracture\niii. Open femur fracture\niv. Closed tibia fracture", "role": "user" }, { "content": "iii. Open femur fracture", "role": "assistant" } ]
5f0259bf-60fb-4e72-bcc5-c6ade1450ca2
Acceptable noise levels in bed room [1] 25dB [2] 20dB [3] 35dB [4] 40dB
40dB
35dB
20dB
25dB
3
single
Acceptable noise levels Expressed in dB (A), sound pressure levels conforming to weighting curve (A) Environment Place Acceptable noise level dB(A) Residential Bed room 25 Living room 40 Commercial Office 35-45 Conference 40-45 Restaurants 40-45 Industrial Work shop 40-60 Laboratory 40-50 Educational Class room 30-40 L...
Social & Preventive Medicine
Environment and health
[1] 25dB
[1] 25dB [2] 20dB [3] 35dB [4] 40dB
[1]
[ "[2]", "[3]", "[4]" ]
[ "[2] 20dB", "[3] 35dB", "[4] 40dB" ]
[2] 20dB
Choose the correct answer from the options below.
[ { "content": "Acceptable noise levels in bed room\n\n[1] 25dB\n[2] 20dB\n[3] 35dB\n[4] 40dB", "role": "user" }, { "content": "[1] 25dB", "role": "assistant" } ]
603b0b73-e700-4412-a053-664451f13bc0
A 48-year-old diabetic with orbital cellulitis presented with a corneal ulcer. An aqueous tap showed branched hyphae. Diagnosis is - [1] Bacterial Ulcer [2] Herpetic ulcer [3] Anterior staphyloma [4] Mycotic Ulcer
Herpetic ulcer
Mycotic Ulcer
Bacterial Ulcer
Anterior staphyloma
1
single
Mycotic (fungal) corneal ulcer The incidence of corneal ulceration due to fungi has increased significantly due to long-term unwarranted use of antibiotic and steroid. The most common mode of infection is an injury by vegetative material such as crop leaf, horn, wooden stick. The causative fungus is Aspergillus fumigat...
Ophthalmology
null
[4] Mycotic Ulcer
[1] Bacterial Ulcer [2] Herpetic ulcer [3] Anterior staphyloma [4] Mycotic Ulcer
[4]
[ "[1]", "[2]", "[3]" ]
[ "[1] Bacterial Ulcer", "[2] Herpetic ulcer", "[3] Anterior staphyloma" ]
[3] Anterior staphyloma
Choose the correct answer from the options below.
[ { "content": "A 48-year-old diabetic with orbital cellulitis presented with a corneal ulcer. An aqueous tap showed branched hyphae. Diagnosis is -\n\n[1] Bacterial Ulcer\n[2] Herpetic ulcer\n[3] Anterior staphyloma\n[4] Mycotic Ulcer", "role": "user" }, { "content": "[4] Mycotic Ulcer", "role": ...
ba538cb8-5684-4996-99dc-a587d42a02e9
The objectives of tooth preparation are all except: 1) To allow for the esthetic placement of a restorative material where indicated 2) To remove all defects while providing protection of the pulp–dentin complex 3) To conserve as much healthy tooth structure as possible 4) To retain the defective, injured, or dise...
To conserve as much healthy tooth structure as possible
To remove all defects while providing protection of the pulp–dentin complex
To retain the defective, injured, or diseased tooth form
To allow for the esthetic placement of a restorative material where indicated
2
multi
Tooth preparation is the mechanical alteration of a defective, injured, or diseased tooth such that placement of restorative material reestablishes normal form (and therefore function) including esthetic corrections, where indicated. Generally, the objectives of tooth preparation are to Conserve as much healthy tooth ...
Dental
null
4) To retain the defective, injured, or diseased tooth form
1) To allow for the esthetic placement of a restorative material where indicated 2) To remove all defects while providing protection of the pulp–dentin complex 3) To conserve as much healthy tooth structure as possible 4) To retain the defective, injured, or diseased tooth form
4)
[ "1)", "2)", "3)" ]
[ "1) To allow for the esthetic placement of a restorative material where indicated", "2) To remove all defects while providing protection of the pulp–dentin complex", "3) To conserve as much healthy tooth structure as possible" ]
1) To allow for the esthetic placement of a restorative material where indicated
Choose the correct answer from the options below.
[ { "content": "The objectives of tooth preparation are all except:\n\n1) To allow for the esthetic placement of a restorative material where indicated\n2) To remove all defects while providing protection of the pulp–dentin complex\n3) To conserve as much healthy tooth structure as possible\n4) To retain the ...
c642ec17-7e49-427b-8da5-b1e49d18d620
Most common viral cause of acquired aqueductal stenosis is? [a] Enterovirus [b] Mumps [c] Rubella [d] Toxoplasma
Rubella
Mumps
Toxoplasma
Enterovirus
1
single
Mumps virus is neurotropic and is thought to enter the CNS the choroid plexus and infect the choroidal epithelium and ependymal cells,both of which can be found in CSF along with mononuclear leukocytes. CSF pleocytosis has been found. Less common CNS complications of mumps include transverse myelitis, aqueductal stenos...
Pediatrics
Infectious disease
[b] Mumps
[a] Enterovirus [b] Mumps [c] Rubella [d] Toxoplasma
[b]
[ "[a]", "[c]", "[d]" ]
[ "[a] Enterovirus", "[c] Rubella", "[d] Toxoplasma" ]
[c] Rubella
Choose the correct answer from the options below.
[ { "content": "Most common viral cause of acquired aqueductal stenosis is?\n\n[a] Enterovirus\n[b] Mumps\n[c] Rubella\n[d] Toxoplasma", "role": "user" }, { "content": "[b] Mumps", "role": "assistant" } ]
09d53001-e2a1-47d9-8c54-030bd0719f5e
In cardio pulmonary resuscitation,calcium can be given in all, except 1) Hypocalcemia 2) Calcium channel blocker 3) Hypokalemia 4) Hyperkalemia
Hypocalcemia
Hypokalemia
Hyperkalemia
Calcium channel blocker
1
multi
After initial unsuccessful defibrillation attempts or with persistent/recurrent electrical instability, antiarrhythmic therapy should be instituted. Intravenous amiodarone has emerged as the initial treatment of choice (150 mg over 10 min, followed by 1 mg/min for up to 6 h and 0.5 mg/min thereafter). For cardiac arres...
Medicine
C.V.S
3) Hypokalemia
1) Hypocalcemia 2) Calcium channel blocker 3) Hypokalemia 4) Hyperkalemia
3)
[ "1)", "2)", "4)" ]
[ "1) Hypocalcemia", "2) Calcium channel blocker", "4) Hyperkalemia" ]
2) Calcium channel blocker
Choose the correct answer from the options below.
[ { "content": "In cardio pulmonary resuscitation,calcium can be given in all, except\n\n1) Hypocalcemia\n2) Calcium channel blocker\n3) Hypokalemia\n4) Hyperkalemia", "role": "user" }, { "content": "3) Hypokalemia", "role": "assistant" } ]
1bef317c-4731-4d22-a51a-ca017adb471b
Sub pubic angle is : (1) 85deg (2) <65deg (3) 110deg- 120deg (4) 65deg- 75deg
<65deg
65deg- 75deg
85deg
110deg- 120deg
2
single
85deg
Gynaecology & Obstetrics
null
(1) 85deg
(1) 85deg (2) <65deg (3) 110deg- 120deg (4) 65deg- 75deg
(1)
[ "(2)", "(3)", "(4)" ]
[ "(2) <65deg", "(3) 110deg- 120deg", "(4) 65deg- 75deg" ]
(3) 110deg- 120deg
Choose the correct answer from the options below.
[ { "content": "Sub pubic angle is :\n\n(1) 85deg\n(2) <65deg\n(3) 110deg- 120deg\n(4) 65deg- 75deg", "role": "user" }, { "content": "(1) 85deg", "role": "assistant" } ]
ff6ea448-1eb4-466a-b034-eca2f679c369
Laryngocele arises from which of the following structure? (1) Saccule of the ventricle (2) Subglottis (3) Anterior commissure (4) True cords
True cords
Subglottis
Saccule of the ventricle
Anterior commissure
2
multi
Laryngocele represents an air filled dilatation of the ventricular saccule that communicates with the laryngeal lumen. Laryngocele are of two types internal and external. Internal arises from within the laryngeal ventricle and remains within the larynx External type arises from the laryngeal ventricle and expands into ...
ENT
null
(1) Saccule of the ventricle
(1) Saccule of the ventricle (2) Subglottis (3) Anterior commissure (4) True cords
(1)
[ "(2)", "(3)", "(4)" ]
[ "(2) Subglottis", "(3) Anterior commissure", "(4) True cords" ]
(4) True cords
Choose the correct answer from the options below.
[ { "content": "Laryngocele arises from which of the following structure?\n\n(1) Saccule of the ventricle\n(2) Subglottis\n(3) Anterior commissure\n(4) True cords", "role": "user" }, { "content": "(1) Saccule of the ventricle", "role": "assistant" } ]
a3cc87d7-4b5f-42c6-a6a8-de638552ba5d
Which of the following is not the function of complements? A. Antiviral action B. Promotes phagocytosis C. Ceil lysis D. Toxin neutralization
Ceil lysis
Antiviral action
Promotes phagocytosis
Toxin neutralization
3
single
Ans: D (Toxin neutralization) Ref: Ananthanarayan, Paniker CJ. Textbook of microbiology. 8th Edition. London: John Wiley & Sons: 2009. Pg 120Explanation:Functions of ComplementIt mediates immunological membrane damage (cytolysis, bacteriolysis)It amplifies the inflammatory response and participates in the pathogenesis ...
Microbiology
Complement System
D. Toxin neutralization
A. Antiviral action B. Promotes phagocytosis C. Ceil lysis D. Toxin neutralization
D.
[ "A.", "B.", "C." ]
[ "A. Antiviral action", "B. Promotes phagocytosis", "C. Ceil lysis" ]
B. Promotes phagocytosis
Choose the correct answer from the options below.
[ { "content": "Which of the following is not the function of complements?\n\nA. Antiviral action\nB. Promotes phagocytosis\nC. Ceil lysis\nD. Toxin neutralization", "role": "user" }, { "content": "D. Toxin neutralization", "role": "assistant" } ]
467b4285-c0f3-42ac-b864-87ecefb8e1d9
Third generation IUCD is 1. CuT 380A 2. Copper 7 3. MIRENA 4. ML CuT 250
ML CuT 250
MIRENA
CuT 380A
Copper 7
1
single
THIRD GENERATION IUDs A third generation of IUDs *based on still another principle, i.e., release of a hormone have become available on a limited scale. The most widely used hormonal device is progestase, which is a T -shaped device filled with 38 mg of progesterone, the natural hormone. The hormone is released slowly ...
Social & Preventive Medicine
Demography and family planning
3. MIRENA
1. CuT 380A 2. Copper 7 3. MIRENA 4. ML CuT 250
3.
[ "1.", "2.", "4." ]
[ "1. CuT 380A", "2. Copper 7", "4. ML CuT 250" ]
1. CuT 380A
Choose the correct answer from the options below.
[ { "content": "Third generation IUCD is\n\n1. CuT 380A\n2. Copper 7\n3. MIRENA\n4. ML CuT 250", "role": "user" }, { "content": "3. MIRENA", "role": "assistant" } ]
76ddc44c-b631-4394-9443-7d05acccba7e
Mitochondrial chromosomal abnormaity leads to 1) Myotonic dystrophy 2) Lebers hereditary optic neuropathy 3) Angelman syndrome 4) Prader villi syndrome
Lebers hereditary optic neuropathy
Angelman syndrome
Prader villi syndrome
Myotonic dystrophy
0
single
Diseases caused by mutations in mitochondrial genes are rare. Because mitochondrial DNA encodes enzymes involved in oxidative phosphorylation, diseases caused by mutations in such genes affect organs most dependent on oxidative phosphorylation (skeletal muscle, hea, brain). Leber hereditary optic neuropathy is the prot...
Pathology
General pathology
2) Lebers hereditary optic neuropathy
1) Myotonic dystrophy 2) Lebers hereditary optic neuropathy 3) Angelman syndrome 4) Prader villi syndrome
2)
[ "1)", "3)", "4)" ]
[ "1) Myotonic dystrophy", "3) Angelman syndrome", "4) Prader villi syndrome" ]
3) Angelman syndrome
Choose the correct answer from the options below.
[ { "content": "Mitochondrial chromosomal abnormaity leads to\n\n1) Myotonic dystrophy\n2) Lebers hereditary optic neuropathy\n3) Angelman syndrome\n4) Prader villi syndrome", "role": "user" }, { "content": "2) Lebers hereditary optic neuropathy", "role": "assistant" } ]
6f0f25d0-6d3a-4dcb-87c3-03ce039b9655
Intravenous immunoglobulin is given in all except? [A] Myasthenic Crisis [B] Wegener's Granulomatosis [C] Kawasaki disease [D] Acute ITP
Kawasaki disease
Acute ITP
Wegener's Granulomatosis
Myasthenic Crisis
2
multi
IVIG is an approved treatment for the following conditions: ITP Kawasaki disease Guillain-Barre syndrome Polymyositis/dermatomyositis. Allogeneic bone marrow transplantation Graft versus host disease Chronic lymphocytic leukemia Common variable immunodeficiency (CVID) Chronic inflammatory demyelinating polyneuro-pathy ...
Medicine
Vasculitis
[B] Wegener's Granulomatosis
[A] Myasthenic Crisis [B] Wegener's Granulomatosis [C] Kawasaki disease [D] Acute ITP
[B]
[ "[A]", "[C]", "[D]" ]
[ "[A] Myasthenic Crisis", "[C] Kawasaki disease", "[D] Acute ITP" ]
[C] Kawasaki disease
Choose the correct answer from the options below.
[ { "content": "Intravenous immunoglobulin is given in all except?\n\n[A] Myasthenic Crisis\n[B] Wegener's Granulomatosis\n[C] Kawasaki disease\n[D] Acute ITP", "role": "user" }, { "content": "[B] Wegener's Granulomatosis", "role": "assistant" } ]
7cfc9276-6319-4c23-8512-2a5318055a30
Burking includes i. Overlaying ii. Choking iii. Traumatic asphysia iv. Ligature
Choking
Ligature
Overlaying
Traumatic asphysia
3
single
Burking is a method of homicidal smothering & traumatic asphyxia. Named after Burke & Hare who killed 16 persons. They give the victim alcohol. Then Burke used to kneel or sit on the chest and close the nose & mouth with his hands then Hare used to pull him around the room by the feet. Ref: The synopsis of forensic med...
Forensic Medicine
Asphyxia
iii. Traumatic asphysia
i. Overlaying ii. Choking iii. Traumatic asphysia iv. Ligature
iii.
[ "i.", "ii.", "iv." ]
[ "i. Overlaying", "ii. Choking", "iv. Ligature" ]
ii. Choking
Choose the correct answer from the options below.
[ { "content": "Burking includes\n\ni. Overlaying\nii. Choking\niii. Traumatic asphysia\niv. Ligature", "role": "user" }, { "content": "iii. Traumatic asphysia", "role": "assistant" } ]
433ddd32-7238-41ff-a8f8-6729f5a6697f
The EEG rhythm having lowest frequency is- 1) Alpha 2) Theta 3) Delta 4) Beta
Alpha
Beta
Delta
Theta
2
single
Ans. C. DeltaThe various types of EEG waveforms are depicted below-
Physiology
Sleep Physiology
3) Delta
1) Alpha 2) Theta 3) Delta 4) Beta
3)
[ "1)", "2)", "4)" ]
[ "1) Alpha", "2) Theta", "4) Beta" ]
1) Alpha
Choose the correct answer from the options below.
[ { "content": "The EEG rhythm having lowest frequency is-\n\n1) Alpha\n2) Theta\n3) Delta\n4) Beta", "role": "user" }, { "content": "3) Delta", "role": "assistant" } ]
29ed3c39-9192-4901-8eef-587ac9d3a249
All of the following are early complications arising after appendicectomy for acute appendicitis except - A) Ileus B) Sterility C) Intestinal obstruction D) Pulmonary complications
Ileus
Sterility
Intestinal obstruction
Pulmonary complications
1
multi
null
Surgery
null
B) Sterility
A) Ileus B) Sterility C) Intestinal obstruction D) Pulmonary complications
B)
[ "A)", "C)", "D)" ]
[ "A) Ileus", "C) Intestinal obstruction", "D) Pulmonary complications" ]
A) Ileus
Choose the correct answer from the options below.
[ { "content": "All of the following are early complications arising after appendicectomy for acute appendicitis except -\n\nA) Ileus\nB) Sterility\nC) Intestinal obstruction\nD) Pulmonary complications", "role": "user" }, { "content": "B) Sterility", "role": "assistant" } ]
df344300-026f-489c-8044-7aa066b10136
Intracapsular articular disc is present in which joint- a) Knee joint b) Sternoclavicular joint c) Hip joint d) Elbow
Sternoclavicular joint
Elbow
Hip joint
Knee joint
0
single
Articular disc is present in temporomandibular and sternoclavicular joints.
Anatomy
null
b) Sternoclavicular joint
a) Knee joint b) Sternoclavicular joint c) Hip joint d) Elbow
b)
[ "a)", "c)", "d)" ]
[ "a) Knee joint", "c) Hip joint", "d) Elbow" ]
c) Hip joint
Choose the correct answer from the options below.
[ { "content": "Intracapsular articular disc is present in which joint-\n\na) Knee joint\nb) Sternoclavicular joint\nc) Hip joint\nd) Elbow", "role": "user" }, { "content": "b) Sternoclavicular joint", "role": "assistant" } ]
310d185d-23da-4508-8386-1d12de3dee56
6-Phosphogluconate dehydrogenase needs A. FMN B. FAD C. NAD D. NADPH
NAD
NADPH
FAD
FMN
1
single
The synthesis of glucose-6-phosphate dehydrogenase and 6-phosphogluconate dehydrogenase may also be induced by insulin in the fed state, A second oxidative step is catalyzed by 6-phosphogluconate dehydrogenase, which also requires NADP+ as hydrogen acceptor.
Biochemistry
null
D. NADPH
A. FMN B. FAD C. NAD D. NADPH
D.
[ "A.", "B.", "C." ]
[ "A. FMN", "B. FAD", "C. NAD" ]
B. FAD
Choose the correct answer from the options below.
[ { "content": "6-Phosphogluconate dehydrogenase needs\n\nA. FMN\nB. FAD\nC. NAD\nD. NADPH", "role": "user" }, { "content": "D. NADPH", "role": "assistant" } ]
186b46cc-981a-4100-9ffd-0e933727eb68
Carbonic anhydrase requires - (A) Zinc (B) Iron (C) Copper (D) None
Copper
Zinc
Iron
None
1
multi
Ans. is 'b' i.e., Zinc o Zinc containing enzymes are carboxypeptidase, carbonic anhydrase, alkaline phosphatase, lactate dehydrogenase, alcohol dehydrogenase, glutamate dehydrogenase, RNA polymerase and superoxide dismutase.MetalMetalloenzymesCa+2Lipase, LecithinaseCopper (Cu+2/Cu+)Cytochrome oxidase, Tyrosinase, Lysyl...
Biochemistry
Mechanisms of Enzyme Action
(A) Zinc
(A) Zinc (B) Iron (C) Copper (D) None
(A)
[ "(B)", "(C)", "(D)" ]
[ "(B) Iron", "(C) Copper", "(D) None" ]
(C) Copper
Choose the correct answer from the options below.
[ { "content": "Carbonic anhydrase requires -\n\n(A) Zinc\n(B) Iron\n(C) Copper\n(D) None", "role": "user" }, { "content": "(A) Zinc", "role": "assistant" } ]
5d1ce162-9734-4534-aee3-783a3bda7114
Absolute indication of Classical Cesarean section is : (1) Breech presentation (2) Placenta pre (3) Carcinoma cervix (4) Transverse lie
Carcinoma cervix
Breech presentation
Transverse lie
Placenta pre
0
single
Carcinoma cervix
Gynaecology & Obstetrics
null
(3) Carcinoma cervix
(1) Breech presentation (2) Placenta pre (3) Carcinoma cervix (4) Transverse lie
(3)
[ "(1)", "(2)", "(4)" ]
[ "(1) Breech presentation", "(2) Placenta pre", "(4) Transverse lie" ]
(2) Placenta pre
Choose the correct answer from the options below.
[ { "content": "Absolute indication of Classical Cesarean section is :\n\n(1) Breech presentation\n(2) Placenta pre\n(3) Carcinoma cervix\n(4) Transverse lie", "role": "user" }, { "content": "(3) Carcinoma cervix", "role": "assistant" } ]
10abd217-1c6d-4f70-86f4-8cfd2ad50f0e
When solid gets wet completely, the contact angle is: A. 0 — 90° B. 90° C. >90° D. 0°
90°
0 — 90°
>90°
1
single
null
Dental
null
D. 0°
A. 0 — 90° B. 90° C. >90° D. 0°
D.
[ "A.", "B.", "C." ]
[ "A. 0 — 90°", "B. 90°", "C. >90°" ]
B. 90°
Choose the correct answer from the options below.
[ { "content": "When solid gets wet completely, the contact angle is:\n\nA. 0 — 90°\nB. 90°\nC. >90°\nD. 0°", "role": "user" }, { "content": "D. 0°", "role": "assistant" } ]
48946aaa-935a-4468-a82d-0c42fc671e9f
A 2 year old female child was brought to a PHC with a history of cough and fever for 4 days with inability to drink for last 12 hours. On examination, the child was having weight of 5 kg and respiratory rate of 45/minute with fever. The child will be classified as suffering from - a. Severe pneumonia b. No pneumonia c...
Very severe disease
Severe pneumonia
Pneumonia
No pneumonia
0
single
Ans. is 'a' i.e., Very severe disease o Classification of acute respiratory tract infection (AI) is very impoant because each class has a corresponding treatment plan. o Classification is different for young infants and older infants & child because young infants have special characteristics. o So, acute respiratory tr...
Social & Preventive Medicine
null
c. Very severe disease
a. Severe pneumonia b. No pneumonia c. Very severe disease d. Pneumonia
c.
[ "a.", "b.", "d." ]
[ "a. Severe pneumonia", "b. No pneumonia", "d. Pneumonia" ]
d. Pneumonia
Choose the correct answer from the options below.
[ { "content": "A 2 year old female child was brought to a PHC with a history of cough and fever for 4 days with inability to drink for last 12 hours. On examination, the child was having weight of 5 kg and respiratory rate of 45/minute with fever. The child will be classified as suffering from -\n\na. Severe pne...